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CompTIA 220-1101 Frequently Asked Questions
CompTIA 220-1101 Sample Questions
Question # 1
A user added a heater underneath a desk, and now an external monitor is not working. Atechnician verified the monitor gets power. Which of the following should the technician donext?
A. Have the user unplug the heater. B. Replace the monitor. C. Open the display settings on the computer. D. Ensure a VGA cable is connected properly.
Answer: A
Explanation: The next step that the technician should do is to have the user unplug the
heater. This is because the heater may be causing electromagnetic interference (EMI) or
radio frequency interference (RFI) that affects the signal transmission between the
computer and the monitor. EMI and RFI are types of noise or distortion that can degrade
the quality or integrity of data signals, especially in analog connections such as VGA. EMI
and RFI can be generated by various sources, such as power lines, motors, fans, heaters,
microwaves, radios, or cell phones. EMI and RFI can cause various symptoms on the
monitor, such as flickering, ghosting, blurring, color shifting, or no display at all.
To troubleshoot EMI and RFI issues, the technician should follow these steps:
Identify the source of the interference. In this case, the heater is the most likely
culprit, as it was added recently and is located close to the monitor or the cable.
Eliminate or reduce the interference. The technician should have the user unplug
the heater or move it away from the monitor or the cable. The technician should
also check if there are any other potential sources of interference nearby and
remove or relocate them if possible.
Test the monitor. The technician should verify if the monitor is working properly
after unplugging or moving the heater. If the monitor is still not working, the
technician should try other troubleshooting steps, such as checking the display
settings on the computer, ensuring the VGA cable is connected properly, or
replacing the monitor.
References:
How to Fix Monitor Flickering - CCM1
How to Fix a Flickering Laptop Screen - Lifewire2
How to Fix a Flickering Monitor - Techwalla3
How to Troubleshoot Display or Video Issues on a Monitor4
How to Troubleshoot a Monitor That Won’t Turn On - Lifewire5
Question # 2
Which of the following is the most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a softwaredeveloper?
A. Increasing the application performance B. Enhancing the security of physical machines C. Reducing the operational costs D. Testing on different operating systems
Answer: D
Explanation: The most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a software developer
is D. Testing on different operating systems.
Client-side virtualization is a type of virtualization that allows a single physical machine,
such as a laptop or a desktop, to run multiple virtual machines, each with its own operating
system and applications. Client-side virtualization can provide several benefits, such as:
Increasing the application performance by allocating more resources to the virtual
machine that runs the application.
Enhancing the security of physical machines by isolating the virtual machines from
each other and from the host machine, and preventing malware or attacks from
spreading or affecting the data.
Reducing the operational costs by consolidating multiple physical machines into
one, and saving on hardware, software, and energy expenses.
However, the most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a software developer is
testing on different operating systems. This means that a software developer can use
client-side virtualization to create and run different virtual machines with different operating
systems, such as Windows, Linux, or Mac OS, and test how their software works and
performs on each of them. This can help the software developer to ensure the
compatibility, functionality, and quality of their software across different platforms and
environments. It can also help the software developer to debug and fix any issues or errors
that may arise on different operating systems.
For more information about client-side virtualization and its use cases, you can refer to the
following web search results: [What Is Client-Side Virtualization?], [Client-Side
Virtualization: Benefits and Challenges], [How Client-Side Virtualization Can Help
Developers].
Question # 3
A customer reports a network connectivity issue. A technician discovers that LAN portshave been damaged during remodeling. Which of the following tools should the technicianuse to fix the issue?
A. Cable stripper B. Punchdown tool C. Crimper D. Network tap
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Punchdown tool.
A punchdown tool is a device that can connect wires to a patch panel or a network jack by
inserting them into the appropriate slots and cutting off the excess. A punchdown tool can
be used to fix the damaged LAN ports by replacing the wires or reconnecting them to the
correct terminals.
A cable stripper is a device that can remove the insulation from a cable to expose the wires
inside. A cable stripper is not useful for fixing the damaged LAN ports, unless the
technician needs to strip new wires before punching them down.
A crimper is a device that can attach connectors to the ends of cables, such as RJ-45 or
RJ-11. A crimper is not useful for fixing the damaged LAN ports, unless the technician
needs to replace the connectors on the cables.
A network tap is a device that can monitor and capture network traffic by creating a copy of
the data passing through a network link. A network tap is not useful for fixing the damaged
LAN ports, as it does not affect the connectivity of the network devices.
A network technician needs to connect into the console of a switch. Which of the followingconnection types should the technician most likely utilize?
A. Serial interface B. Bluetooth C. Near-field communication D. Port replicator
Answer: A
Explanation:
A serial interface is a common way to connect to the console port of a switch using a rollover cable and a terminal emulator program. This allows the network technician to
configure and troubleshoot the switch. Bluetooth, near-field communication, and port
A technician is selecting RAM for a new high-end workstation. The motherboard has eightslots that support DDR5 memory. Which of the following should the technician do tooptimize performance?
A. Use the minimum number of modules. B. Increase the virtual RAM. C. Increase memory timings. D. Utilize all channels.
Answer: D
Explanation: The best option that the technician should do to optimize performance is D.
Utilize all channels. This option means that the technician should install the RAM modules
in a way that maximizes the number of memory channels that are used by the
motherboard. Memory channels are pathways that connect the memory controller to the
RAM modules, and they allow data to be transferred between them. The more memory
channels that are used, the higher the memory bandwidth and performance1.
DDR5 memory supports up to eight memory channels per module, which is twice as many
as DDR42. However, not all motherboards can support eight channels per module, and
some may only support four or two channels per module. Therefore, the technician should
check the motherboard specifications and manual to determine how many memory
channels it supports and how to install the RAM modules accordingly.
For example, if the motherboard supports four channels per module, then the technician
should install four RAM modules in slots 1, 3, 5, and 7 to use all 16 available channels. If
the motherboard supports two channels per module, then the technician should install eight
RAM modules in all slots to use all 16 available channels. If the technician installs fewer
modules than the number of slots, then some channels will be left unused and the
performance will be lower1.
Question # 6
A company recently enabled two-factor authentication in order to enhance security. Usersshould be prompted for two-factor authentication when working outside of the office, butare also being prompted when connecting to the office Wi-Fi. Which ofthe following should the technician do?
A. Leave the current rules in place and disable Wi-Fi on all devices. B. Implement allow listing and add the office IP address as an exception. C. Remove two-factor authentication from the users' accounts. D. Substitute hard tokens in place of soft tokens.
Answer: B
Explanation: Allow listing is a security technique that allows only specific IP addresses or
domains to access a network or a service. By adding the office IP address as an exception,
the company can prevent two-factor authentication from being triggered when users are
connected to the office Wi-Fi, since the office network is considered trusted. This way,
users will only be prompted for two-factor authentication when working outside of the office,
which enhances security.
References: The following web search results provide more information about allow listing
and two-factor authentication:
What Is Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)? | Microsoft Security: This article explains the
concept of two-factor authentication, its benefits, and its methods.
Change your two-step verification method and settings - Microsoft Support: This article
shows how to manage your security verification methods and settings for your work or
school account, including how to turn on two-factor verification prompts on a trusted device.
2FA Directory: This website lists all the sites that support two-factor authentication, and the
methods they use.
Question # 7
A user reports a workstation is having the following issues:· OS performance is slow. The workstation turns off randomly from time to time. The fans are running loudlyWhich of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The system is infected with malware. B. The CPU is overheating. C. The hard drive is failing. D. The power supply is insufficient.
Answer: B
Explanation: One of the possible causes of slow OS performance, random shutdowns,
and loud fan noise is the CPU overheating. This can happen due to dust accumulation,
faulty cooling system, or high CPU usage. Overheating can damage the CPU and other
components, so it is important to monitor the CPU temperature and take preventive
measures.
References:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook1, page 2-9,
section “CPU Cooling Methods”.
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide2, page 2-11, section
“Troubleshooting CPUs”.
Question # 8
A company in a large building uses a wireless network for its workstations. After a newcompany moves into the building on the floor below, the old company's wireless networkbegins experiencing connectivity Issues. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. External interference B. Port flapping C. High latency D. Limited connectivity
Answer: A
Explanation: The most likely cause of the wireless network connectivity issues is A.
External interference.
External interference is any signal or noise that disrupts or degrades the quality of a
wireless network. External interference can come from various sources, such as other
wireless networks, cordless phones, microwaves, Bluetooth devices, or electrical
appliances. External interference can affect the wireless network performance, reliability,
and security, by causing issues such as signal loss, packet drops, latency, or interference.
In this scenario, a company in a large building uses a wireless network for its workstations.
After a new company moves into the building on the floor below, the old company’s
wireless network begins experiencing connectivity issues. This could indicate that the new
company’s wireless network is using the same or overlapping frequency channel as the old
company’s wireless network, and creating external interference. Wireless networks use
radio frequency channels to transmit and receive data, and each channel has a certain
bandwidth and range. If two or more wireless networks use the same or overlapping
channel, they may interfere with each other and cause congestion or collision.
To resolve this issue, the old company’s network technician should change the wireless
network channel to a different one that is less crowded or more compatible with the
wireless network standard. The technician should also check the wireless network settings
and features, such as SSID (Service Set Identifier), encryption, authentication, or power
level, and adjust them if necessary. The technician should also scan the wireless
environment and identify the sources and levels of external interference, and try to avoid or
minimize them if possible.
For more information about external interference and how to prevent or reduce it, you can
refer to the following web search results: [What Is Wireless Interference?], [How to Find the
Best WiFi Channel for Your Router], [How to Reduce Wireless Interference].
Question # 9
A technician is working to replace a single DDR3 RAM module on a laptop that has twooccupied slots_ When the technician tries to tum on the laptop, the computer startsbeeping and does not pass POST The technician double-checks the newly installed RAMand notices a motherboard message indicating low voltage. Which of the following is themost likely cause of this Issue?
A. Faulty power adapter B. Incorrect BIOS settings C. Failing CMOS battery' D. Unsupported memory
Answer: D
Explanation: Memory modules are physical components that store data and instructions
for the computer to access and process. Memory modules have different specifications and
features, such as type, speed, capacity, voltage, and form factor. These specifications and
features must be compatible with the motherboard and the processor of the computer,
otherwise the memory modules may not work properly or cause errors.
In this scenario, the technician is working to replace a single DDR3 RAM module on a
laptop that has two occupied slots. DDR3 stands for Double Data Rate 3, and it is a type of
memory technology that offers faster performance and lower power consumption than its
predecessors. DDR3 RAM modules have different variants, such as DDR3L, DDR3U, or
DDR3R, which have different voltage requirements. For example, DDR3L operates at
1.35V, DDR3U operates at 1.25V, and DDR3R operates at 1.5V.
When the technician tries to turn on the laptop, the computer starts beeping and does not
pass POST. POST stands for Power-On Self-Test, and it is a process that checks the
hardware components and functionality of the computer before loading the operating
system. If POST detects an error or a failure, it may produce a series of beeps or codes to
indicate the problem. The number and pattern of beeps or codes may vary depending on
the manufacturer or model of the computer.
The technician double-checks the newly installed RAM and notices a motherboard
message indicating low voltage. This means that the motherboard is not receiving enough
power from the memory module to operate normally. This could indicate that the memory
module is not compatible with the motherboard or the processor, or that it is defective or
damaged. The most likely cause of this issue is that the technician installed an
unsupported memory module that has a lower voltage than what the motherboard or the
processor requires.
To resolve this issue, the technician should remove the newly installed RAM module and
replace it with a compatible one that has the same voltage as the existing ones. The
technician should also check the specifications and features of the motherboard and the
processor to ensure that they support the type, speed, capacity, and form factor of the
memory modules. The technician should also follow proper safety precautions when
handling memory modules, such as wearing an anti-static wrist strap, avoiding physical
damage or static discharge, and aligning the notches correctly.
Question # 10
A technician is working with a vendor to resolve an issue that a user reported. The vendorindicates that the technician's next step is to update the firmware. Which of the following isthe most important step the technician should take before proceeding?
A. Verify the device is fully charged and connected to a power supply. B. Ensure the device has adequate storage space for the update. C. Verify administrative access on the device. D. Export the users settings so they can be imported after the upgrade
Answer: A
Explanation: The most important step the technician should take before proceeding is A.
Verify the device is fully charged and connected to a power supply. Firmware is a type of software that controls the basic functions and operations of a device,
such as a router, printer, or scanner. Firmware can be updated to fix bugs, improve
performance, or add new features to the device. However, updating firmware can also be
risky, as it may cause the device to malfunction or become unusable if the update process
is interrupted or corrupted.
One of the main causes of firmware update failure is power loss, which can occur if the
device runs out of battery or is disconnected from the power source during the update.
Power loss can damage the firmware and prevent the device from booting up or functioning
properly. Therefore, it is essential to verify that the device is fully charged and connected to
a power supply before updating the firmware. This can ensure that the device has enough
power to complete the update process and avoid any interruptions or errors.
The other options are not as important as verifying the power status of the device. Ensuring
the device has adequate storage space for the update is a good practice, but it is not likely
to cause a major problem if the device does not have enough space. The update process
will either fail to start or prompt the user to free up some space before proceeding.
Verifying administrative access on the device is also a good practice, but it is not necessary
for updating firmware. Administrative access is required for installing or uninstalling
software applications, but not for updating firmware. Firmware updates are usually provided
by the device manufacturer or vendor and do not require user authentication. Exporting the
user settings so they can be imported after the upgrade is a precautionary measure, but it
is not mandatory for updating firmware. Firmware updates do not usually affect the user
settings or data on the device, unless they are incompatible or corrupted. Exporting the
user settings can help restore them in case of any problems, but it does not prevent them
from occurring.
Question # 11
A technician is troubleshooting Wi-Fi connection issues on a customer's laptop. The laptopconnects but intermittently disconnects. The technician has already confirmed the wirelesscard is properly installed, the router settings are correct, and the wireless signal strength isnormal. Which of the following should the technician investigate next?
A. Firewall settings B. MAC address filter C. Number of connected devices D. Radio frequency
Answer: D
Explanation: The next thing that the technician should investigate is D. Radio frequency.
Radio frequency is the range of electromagnetic waves that are used to transmit wireless
signals. Different devices and networks use different radio frequencies, such as 2.4 GHz or
5 GHz, to communicate with each other. If there are multiple devices or networks using the
same or overlapping radio frequencies, they can interfere with each other and cause Wi-Fi
connection issues, such as intermittent disconnections, slow speeds, or poor quality .
To fix this issue, the technician can try changing the radio frequency or channel of the router or the laptop, to avoid interference from other sources. The technician can also use
a tool such as Wi-Fi Analyzer to scan the nearby wireless networks and find the best
frequency or channel to use. Alternatively, the technician can move the router or the laptop
to a different location, away from potential sources of interference, such as cordless
phones, microwaves, Bluetooth devices, or other routers .
The other options are less likely to be the reason for the issue. Firewall settings are
software configurations that control the network traffic and security of a device. They may
block some websites or applications from accessing the internet, but they should not affect
the Wi-Fi connection itself. MAC address filter is a feature that allows the router to restrict
access to specific devices based on their MAC addresses, which are unique identifiers for
network interfaces. If the MAC address filter is enabled and the laptop’s MAC address is
not on the allowed list, it will not be able to connect to the Wi-Fi network at all, not
intermittently. Number of connected devices is the amount of devices that are using the
same Wi-Fi network at the same time. This may affect the network performance or
bandwidth, but it should not cause intermittent disconnections, unless the network is
overloaded or unstable.
References:
How To Fix WiFi Connection Problems - Help Desk Geek
How to Fix Your WiFi Connection Problems - Lifewire
Wi-Fi Analyzer - Apps on Google Play
Question # 12
Which of the following delivers internet over a copper medium?
A. ONT B. SDN C. DSL D. WISP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. DSL.
DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, which is a technology that delivers internet over a
copper medium, such as a telephone line. DSL uses different frequencies than voice calls,
so it can provide both internet and phone service simultaneously. DSL can offer faster speeds than dial-up, but it depends on the distance from the service provider and the
quality of the copper line .
The other options are not technologies that deliver internet over a copper medium. ONT
stands for Optical Network Terminal, which is a device that converts optical signals from a
fiber optic cable to electrical signals for a copper cable or a wireless router. ONT is used for
fiber-to-the-home (FTTH) internet service, which delivers internet over a fiber optic
medium. SDN stands for Software Defined Networking, which is a technology that allows
network administrators to manage and control network resources and traffic using software
applications. SDN is not related to the physical medium of internet delivery, but rather to
the logical layer of network configuration and optimization. WISP stands for Wireless
Internet Service Provider, which is a company that delivers internet over a wireless
medium, such as radio waves or microwaves. WISP can provide internet access to rural or
remote areas where wired connections are not available or feasible.
Question # 13
A user needs a technician's help connecting a laptop to a projector The projector is old andonly has analog input. Which of the following cable types should the technician use toconnect the laptop to the proJector?
A. HDMI B. RS-232 C. VGA D. DisplayPort
Answer: C
Explanation:
VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, and it is a type of cable that can be used to transmit
analog video signals between devices, such as laptops, monitors, or projectors. VGA
cables have 15 pins arranged in three rows, and they are usually color-coded blue. VGA
cables can support resolutions up to 2048 x 1536 pixels, but they have low quality and
limited color depth compared to modern digital standards such as HDMI or DisplayPort .
A projector is a device that projects an image or a video onto a large surface, such as a
wall or a screen. A projector can have different types of input ports, such as VGA, HDMI,
DVI, or USB. A projector can also have different types of output technologies, such as
LCD, DLP, or LED .
In this scenario, the user needs a technician’s help connecting a laptop to a projector. The
projector is old and only has analog input. This means that the projector can only accept
analog video signals, and not digital ones. Therefore, the technician should use a VGA
cable to connect the laptop to the projector, as it is the most common type of analog video
cable. The technician should also make sure that the laptop and the projector have
compatible VGA ports, and that the laptop’s display settings are adjusted to match the
projector’s resolution and aspect ratio.
Question # 14
An online retailer is working to support increased sales and boost server capacity byinstalling additional servers. Which of the following should be used to ensure each new server will be properly utilized?
A. Virtualization B. DNS C. Clustering D. Load balancer
Answer: A
Explanation: Virtualization is a technology that allows creating multiple virtual machines
(VMs) on a single physical server. Each VM can run its own operating system and
applications, and share the resources of the physical server, such as CPU, memory, disk,
and network1. Virtualization can help improve server utilization and management in several
ways, such as:
•Reducing the number of physical servers needed to run the same workload, which can
lower the costs of hardware, power, cooling, and maintenance1.
•Increasing the flexibility and scalability of the server infrastructure, as VMs can be created,
deleted, moved, or resized on demand without affecting the other VMs or the physical
server1.
•Enhancing the availability and reliability of the server applications, as VMs can be backed
up, restored, or migrated to another physical server in case of failure or maintenance1.
•Improving the security and isolation of the server data, as VMs can be configured with
different levels of access and protection, and separated from each other and the physical
server1.
Question # 15
A technician is designing a new laptop for a local construction company. Companyemployees will move the laptop around frequently and are likely to drop the laptop whileworking. Which of the following drives should the technician install to mitigate for potentialdamage?
A. S.M.A.R.T B. SCSI C. RAID D. Solid-state
Answer: D
Explanation:
Solid-state drives (SSDs) are the best choice for laptops that are likely to drop while
working, as they have no moving parts and are more resistant to shock and vibration than
hard-disk drives (HDDs). SSDs also offer faster performance, lower power consumption,
and less noise and heat than HDDs. SSDs use flash memory chips to store data, unlike
HDDs that use spinning platters and read/write heads. SSDs can be connected to laptops
using various interfaces, such as SATA, PCIe, or NVMe.
The other options are not suitable for this scenario. S.M.A.R.T (Self-Monitoring, Analysis,
and Reporting Technology) is a feature that monitors the health and performance of HDDs
and SSDs, but it does not prevent damage from dropping. SCSI (Small Computer System
Interface) is an interface that connects various devices, such as HDDs, SSDs, scanners,
and printers, to a computer, but it is not commonly used in laptops. RAID (Redundant Array
of Independent Disks) is a system that combines multiple HDDs or SSDs into a single
logical unit, providing redundancy, performance, or both, but it is not feasible or practical to
implement RAID in a laptop.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
The Best SSDs for Upgrading Your Laptop in 2023 | PCMag3
Question # 16
A technician is upgrading the power supply of a workstation that is running multiple GPUsin an SLI configuration. Which of the following cables isneeded to ensure the power supply can support the workstation?
A. 8-pin PCle B. 4-pin Molex C. 4+4-pin ATX12V D. 8-pin ATX12V
Answer: A
Explanation:
The 8-pin PCle power cable is designed to supply power to a graphics card that requires
more power than the PCle slot can provide. A workstation that is running multiple GPUs in
an SLI configuration would need this cable to ensure adequate power delivery and stability.
The other cables are not suitable for this purpose, as they are either meant for the
motherboard (4+4-pin ATX12V and 8-pin ATX12V) or for older devices (4-pin Molex)
Which of the following technologies can be used to harden guest virtual machines?
A. Containerization B. Network isolation C. Resource reservation D. vTPM
Answer: D
Explanation: A virtual Trusted Platform Module (vTPM) is a technology that can be used to
harden guest virtual machines by providing them with a secure cryptographic device. A
vTPM can store encryption keys, certificates, and passwords, and can perform integrity
checks on the guest operating system and applications. A vTPM can also enable features
such as BitLocker and Credential Guard in Windows 10 virtual machines.
A. Containerization is a technology that can be used to isolate applications from the
underlying operating system and hardware resources. Containerization does not directly
harden guest virtual machines, but rather provides a lightweight alternative to virtualization.
B. Network isolation is a technology that can be used to separate network traffic between different virtual machines or groups of virtual machines. Network isolation can help prevent
unauthorized access or attacks on guest virtual machines, but it does not harden them
internally.
C. Resource reservation is a technology that can be used to guarantee a minimum amount
of CPU, memory, disk, or network resources for a virtual machine or a group of virtual
machines. Resource reservation can help improve the performance and availability of
guest virtual machines, but it does not harden them against security threats.
D. vTPM is a technology that can be used to harden guest virtual machines by providing
them with a secure cryptographic device. A vTPM can store encryption keys, certificates,
and passwords, and can perform integrity checks on the guest operating system and
A users wireless laptop stopped working A technician replaced the wireless card, but thewireless range is now limited. Which of the following should the technician perform next?
A. Verify the antenna's connection. B. Switch from a 2 4GHz band to a 5GHz band C. Change the channels of the Wi-Fi card settings. D. Upgrade the wireless driver.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A limited wireless range after replacing the wireless card could indicate that the antenna is
not properly connected to the card, or that the antenna is damaged or obstructed.
According to the web search results, some possible steps to troubleshoot and verify the
antenna’s connection are:
Open the laptop case and locate the wireless card and the antenna wires. Make
sure that the wires are securely attached to the card’s connectors, and that they
are not loose or broken12.
Check the position and orientation of the antenna. Make sure that it is not blocked
by any metal objects, walls, or other sources of interference. Adjust the angle or
location of the antenna if possible to improve the signal strength3.
Replace the antenna with a new one or a compatible one from another device.
Test the wireless range and performance with the new antenna2.
Question # 19
A user's laptop has been slow to respond for the past few days. The user has run a virusscan, deleted temporary files, closed unnecessary programs, and rebooted the laptop, butthe issue persists. Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
A. Perform a RAM upgrade. B. Replace the laptop's hard drive. C. Bench test the laptop. D. Run a firmware update.
Answer: D
Explanation: Firmware is a type of software that controls the hardware components of a
device, such as the motherboard, hard drive, or keyboard. Firmware updates can improve
the performance, stability, and compatibility of the device, as well as fix bugs and security
issues. Running a firmware update can help to resolve the issue of a slow laptop,
especially if the firmware is outdated or corrupted.
Question # 20
A technician is attempting to fix a computer that does not turn on when the power button ispressed Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT to troubleshoot theissue?
A. Verify the output voltages from the power supply unit. B. Open the computer cabinet and replace the power button. C. Remove and reconnect all cables that are plugged into the motherboard D. Reseat the power cable and confirm the outlet is providing energy.
Answer: D
Explanation: The first step in troubleshooting a computer that does not turn on when the
power button is pressed is to check if there is any power going to the computer. The
technician should reseat or reconnect the power cable to ensure it is firmly attached to both
ends, and confirm that the outlet or power strip is providing energy by using a multimeter or
another device. This can eliminate any issues with loose or faulty connections or power
sources, and help isolate the problem further. Reference:
A user's brand new phone froze while information was being transferred from the oldphone. When a technician reset the new phone, it functioned properly when a data transferwas not being attempted. When the technician tested the old phone, it did not appear tohave any functionality issues and passed all forms of device testing. Which of the followingis the most likely reason the data transfer failed?
A. The older phone had a different OS version. B. The older phone had a corrupted OS. C. The older phone had different hardware. D. The older phone utilized different wireless protocols.
Answer: D
Explanation: The most likely reason the data transfer failed is D. The older phone utilized different wireless protocols.
Wireless protocols are the standards that devices use to communicate with each other over
a wireless network. Different wireless protocols have different features, such as speed,
range, security, and compatibility. If the older phone and the new phone use different
wireless protocols, they may not be able to transfer data smoothly or at all. For example, if
the older phone uses Wi-Fi Direct and the new phone uses Bluetooth, they may not be able
to connect or recognize each other.
To avoid this problem, you should make sure that both devices support the same wireless
protocol and that they are in range of each other. You can also use a third-party app or
service that can transfer data between different devices, such as Smart Switch1 or Move to
iOS2. These apps can help you transfer data such as contacts, photos, messages, and
more from your old phone to your new phone.
References:
2: Failure of data transfer from android to … - Apple Community
1: Smart Switch Transfer Issues - Samsung Electronics America
Question # 22
A printer is leaving vertical black lines on every print job. A technician runs a test job andsees the same patterned lines. Which of the following should the technician do first toresolve the issue?
A. Replace the toner. B. Contact the vendor. C. Clean the rollers. D. Replace the paper.
Answer: C
Question # 23
A user reports that a display is slow to turn on, and the colors are distorted and discolored.Once the display turns on, it appears to have lines going through the image andintermittently goes blank. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. Incorrect data source B. Incorrect resolution settings C. Physical cabling issues D. Incorrect refresh rate E. Display burn-in
Answer: C
Explanation: Physical cabling issues refer to any problems with the cables or connectors
that connect a display to a computer or a power source. Physical cabling issues can cause
various symptoms, such as slow to turn on, distorted and discolored images, lines going
through the image, and intermittent blank screens. The technician should check the cables
and connectors for any damage, looseness, or interference.
Question # 24
Which of the following scenarios best illustrate a need for VDI? (Select two).
A. An IT engineer who is designing and showcasing organization user experiences formultiple clients B. A company that needs to store IOPB worth of data C. A manufacturing plant that has high turnover D. A bank that has security concerns regarding employee activity E. A payment processor that is planning on implementing virtual currency F. An application developer who needs to configure network settings for an application
Answer: A,D
Explanation: The scenarios that best illustrate a need for VDI are A and D.
VDI can provide several benefits for different use cases, such as:
Enhancing security and compliance by centralizing and encrypting data and
applications on the server, rather than on the endpoint devices. This can prevent
data loss, theft, or leakage, as well as reduce the risk of malware or unauthorized
access. This is especially important for organizations that deal with sensitive or
regulated information, such as banks, healthcare providers, or government
agencies123.
Improving flexibility and mobility by allowing users to access their desktops and
applications from any device, location, or network. This can enable remote work,
bring your own device (BYOD) policies, or disaster recovery scenarios. This is
especially useful for organizations that have distributed or mobile workforce, such
as IT engineers, consultants, or sales representatives123.
Reducing costs and complexity by simplifying the management and maintenance
of desktops and applications. This can lower the hardware, software, and energy
expenses, as well as the IT staff workload. This is especially beneficial for
organizations that have large or diverse desktop environments, such as schools,
call centers, or manufacturing plants123.
Based on these benefits, the scenarios that best illustrate a need for VDI are:
A. An IT engineer who is designing and showcasing organization user experiences
for multiple clients. This scenario requires flexibility and mobility, as the IT
engineer needs to access different desktop environments and applications from
various devices and locations. VDI can enable the IT engineer to create and switch
between multiple virtual desktops on the same server, and to access them from
any client device with an internet connection1.
D. A bank that has security concerns regarding employee activity. This scenario
requires security and compliance, as the bank needs to protect its data and
applications from internal and external threats. VDI can enhance the security of the
bank’s desktop environment by storing and encrypting all data and applications on
the server, rather than on the endpoint devices. VDI can also provide granular
control and monitoring of user access and activity2.
The scenarios that do not illustrate a need for VDI are:
B. A company that needs to store IOPB worth of data. This scenario does not
require VDI, as VDI is not a storage solution but a desktop virtualization solution. VDI can help reduce the storage requirements of endpoint devices by storing data
on the server, but it does not provide storage capacity or performance for largescale
data processing or analysis. The company may need a different type of
cloud service, such as storage as a service (SaaS) or big data as a service
(BDaaS), to store and manage its massive amount of data4.
C. A manufacturing plant that has high turnover. This scenario does not require
VDI, as VDI is not a human resource solution but a desktop virtualization solution.
VDI can help reduce the costs and complexity of managing desktops and
applications for a large number of users, but it does not address the root causes of
high turnover, such as low wages, poor working conditions, or lack of training. The
manufacturing plant may need to improve its human resource policies and
practices to retain its employees.
E. A payment processor that is planning on implementing virtual currency. This
scenario does not require VDI, as VDI is not a payment solution but a desktop
virtualization solution. VDI can help improve the security and flexibility of accessing
desktops and applications over the internet, but it does not provide the functionality
or compatibility for processing virtual currency transactions. The payment
processor may need a different type of cloud service, such as blockchain as a
service (BaaS) or cryptocurrency as a service (CaaS), to implement and manage
its virtual currency platform.
F. An application developer who needs to configure network settings for an
application. This scenario does not require VDI, as VDI is not a development
solution but a desktop virtualization solution. VDI can help provide different
desktop environments and applications for testing purposes, but it does not
provide the tools or resources for developing or configuring applications. The
application developer may need a different type of cloud service, such as platform
as a service (PaaS) or software development as a service (SDaaS), to create and
deploy applications.
Question # 25
A customer recently installed a new graphics card, but the card's HDMI port is not getting asignal when connected to the monitor. When the monitor is connected to the original HDMIport, located next to the USB ports, everything works as expected. Which of the followingshould the technician do next?
A. Change the input source selection on the monitor. B. Check to see whether the UEFI setting for PCle graphics is enabled. C. Install a higher wattage power supply. D. Test the new graphics card with an HDMI to DVI adapter.
Answer: B
Question # 26
A printer displays an error message even after a paper jam is cleared. Which of thefollowing should a technician do to fix the issue?
A. Check the paper path for a blocked sensor. B. Verify the pickup roller is functioning. C. Change the duplex settings. D. Run internal printer diagnostics.
Answer: A
Explanation: A paper path is the route that paper takes through a printer from the input
tray to the output tray. A blocked sensor is a sensor that detects paper jams or other errors
in the paper path but fails to clear after the problem is resolved. A blocked sensor can
cause a printer to display an error message even after a paper jam is cleared. The
technician should check the paper path for any debris or obstructions that may trigger the
sensor.
Question # 27
Given the following output from a cable tester:==================== Open=12345678==12 45 78====================Which of the following tools should the technician use to resolve this issue? (Select two).
A. Loopback plug B. Network tap C. Toner probe D. Crimper E. Punchdown tool F. Wi-Fi analyzer
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
The output from the cable tester indicates that there is an open fault in the cable, which
means that one or more of the wires in the cable are not connected properly or are broken.
The open fault affects the wires 3, 4, and 6, which are used for transmitting and receiving
data in Ethernet networks. The open fault can cause network connectivity issues, such as
no link, slow speed, or packet loss12.
To resolve this issue, the technician should use a crimper and a punchdown tool, which are
tools that are used to attach connectors to cables or wires to patch panels. A crimper is a
tool that squeezes or crimps a connector, such as an RJ-45, to the end of a cable, ensuring
that the wires are securely inserted into the pins of the connector. A punchdown tool is a
tool that pushes or punches a wire into a slot on a patch panel, creating a connection
between the wire and the panel. Both tools can be used to fix or replace the faulty wires or
connectors that cause the open fault12.
The other options are not as effective or relevant as a crimper and a punchdown tool. A
loopback plug is a tool that is used to test the functionality of a network port or device, by
sending and receiving signals from the same port or device. A loopback plug can help
diagnose network problems, such as faulty ports or devices, but it cannot fix the open fault
in the cable12. A network tap is a tool that is used to monitor or capture network traffic, by
creating a copy of the data that passes through a network link. A network tap can help
analyze network performance, security, or troubleshooting, but it cannot fix the open fault in
the cable12. A toner probe is a tool that is used to trace or identify a cable or wire, by
sending and detecting an audible tone along the cable or wire. A toner probe can help
locate or label network cables or wires, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12. A Wi-
Fi analyzer is a tool that is used to scan or measure wireless networks, by displaying
information such as signal strength, channel, encryption, etc. A Wi-Fi analyzer can help
optimize or troubleshoot wireless networks, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12.
References:
Network Tools – CompTIA A+ 220-1101 - Professor Messer IT …
and Labs and Textbook Bundle, Chapter 5: Networking, Section 5.5: Network
Tools, Page 250
Question # 28
Isolating email attachments in a safe place until the attachments can be scanned formalware is defined as:
A. an approve listing. B. a screened subnet. C. cross-platform virtualization. D. sandboxing.
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Sandboxing.
Sandboxing is a security technique that isolates email attachments in a safe place until the
Question # 29
A technician is upgrading a desktop's storage with the fastest option available. Thedesktop's motherboard is equipped with SATA Ill, NVMe, and IDE. Which of the followingshould the technician choose for the best performance?
A. PCIe SSD connected via NVMe interface B. 3.5in (8.9cm) 10,000rpm HDD connected via IDE interface C. M.2 SSD connected via SATA interface D. 2.5in (6.35cm) SSD connected via SATA interface
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best option that the technician should choose for the best performance is A. PCIe SSD
connected via NVMe interface. This option means that the technician should install a solid
state drive (SSD) that uses the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) bus
and the NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) protocol to communicate with the
motherboard. This option can offer the following advantages:
Faster speed: PCIe SSDs can transfer data faster than SATA or IDE SSDs, as
they use more lanes and have higher bandwidth. PCIe SSDs can reach speeds of
up to 7,000 MB/s, while SATA SSDs are limited to 600 MB/s and IDE SSDs are
even slower12. NVMe is a protocol that is designed specifically for SSDs and can
optimize their performance by reducing latency and increasing parallelism3.
Smaller size: PCIe SSDs can be smaller than SATA or IDE SSDs, as they do not
require additional cables or connectors. PCIe SSDs can come in different form
factors, such as M.2 or U.2, which can fit in different slots on the motherboard12.
Higher reliability: PCIe SSDs can be more reliable than SATA or IDE SSDs, as
they have less moving parts and are less prone to mechanical failures or data
corruption. PCIe SSDs can also support features such as error correction and
wear leveling, which can enhance their durability and lifespan12.
Question # 30
Which of the following cables should be used when connecting a cable modem to a SOHOrouter?
A. FireWire B. Fiber C. Ethernet D. Coaxial
Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Ethernet.
An Ethernet cable is a type of network cable that is used to connect devices on a local area
network (LAN), such as computers, routers, switches, and modems. Ethernet cables have
RJ-45 connectors at both ends, which are similar to telephone jacks but larger. Ethernet
cables can carry data signals at speeds ranging from 10 Mbps to 10 Gbps, depending on
the type and quality of the cable.
A cable modem is a device that connects to a coaxial cable from a cable service provider and provides high-speed internet access. A SOHO router is a small office/home office
router that connects to a cable modem or DSL modem and provides network and internet
access to multiple devices on a LAN. A SOHO router typically has one WAN port and four
LAN ports. The WAN port is used to connect to the cable modem or DSL modem, while the
LAN ports are used to connect to computers or other devices on the LAN.
To connect a cable modem to a SOHO router, an Ethernet cable is needed. The Ethernet
cable is plugged into the WAN port of the SOHO router and the Ethernet port of the cable
modem. This allows the SOHO router to receive an IP address from the cable service
provider and share it with the devices on the LAN using network address translation (NAT).
The SOHO router also provides firewall and wireless features for the LAN.
The other options are incorrect because they are not suitable for connecting a cable
modem to a SOHO router. FireWire is a type of serial bus that is used to connect devices
such as digital cameras, external hard drives, and audio interfaces. FireWire cables have
different connectors than Ethernet cables and cannot be used for network communication.
Fiber is a type of optical cable that uses light signals to transmit data over long distances.
Fiber cables have special connectors that are not compatible with Ethernet ports. Coaxial is
a type of copper cable that has a central conductor surrounded by an insulating layer and a
braided shield. Coaxial cables are used for cable TV and internet services, but they cannot
be directly connected to Ethernet ports without an adapter.
Installing and Configuring a Cable Modem/DSL Router
Cisco 831 Router and SOHO 91 Router Cabling and Setup Quick Start Guide
Question # 31
A technician wants to stress test multiple applications while maintaining the ability to easilyreset those environments back to the initial state. Which of the following is the best way toaccomplish this task?
A. Honeypot B. Hybrid cloud C. Sandbox D. Production network
Answer: C
Explanation: A sandbox is a virtual environment that allows testing or running applications without
affecting the main system. A sandbox can isolate the applications from the rest of the
system, preventing any unwanted changes, errors, or security risks. A sandbox can also be
easily reset to the initial state, discarding any modifications or data generated by the
applications12.
A sandbox is a useful tool for stress testing multiple applications, as it can:
•Simulate different scenarios and conditions for the applications, such as high load, low
memory, network latency, etc.
•Monitor and measure the performance, stability, and resource consumption of the
applications under stress.
•Compare and analyze the results of different applications or different versions of the same
application.
•Identify and fix any bugs, errors, or vulnerabilities in the applications before deploying
them to the main system.
Question # 32
A technician is using a PAN to connect a group of users on a field project. Which of thefollowing services should the technician activate on the mobile device to share the internetdata connection?
A. Tethering B. Pairing C. Bluetooth D. Hotspot
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Tethering.
Tethering is the process of sharing a mobile device’s internet data connection with other
devices, such as laptops, tablets, or other phones. Tethering can be done by using a Wi-Fi hotspot, a Bluetooth connection, or a USB cable. A Wi-Fi hotspot creates a wireless
network that other devices can join, a Bluetooth connection pairs the devices and allows
data transfer, and a USB cable connects the devices physically and enables data sharing.
A PAN, or personal area network, is a type of network that connects devices within a short
range, usually up to 10 meters. A PAN can be used for various purposes, such as
transferring files, printing documents, or accessing the internet. A PAN can be created by
using Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, or infrared technologies.
A technician can use a PAN to connect a group of users on a field project by using
tethering on a mobile device. The technician can activate the tethering service on the
mobile device and choose the preferred method of sharing the internet data connection.
The other devices can then connect to the mobile device and access the internet through it.
The other options are incorrect because they are not services that can share the internet
data connection on a mobile device. Pairing is the process of establishing a connection
between two Bluetooth devices, but it does not necessarily share the internet data
connection. Bluetooth is a technology that can create a PAN and enable tethering, but it is
not a service that can be activated on a mobile device. Hotspot is a term that can refer to a
Wi-Fi hotspot created by tethering on a mobile device, but it is not a service that can be
activated on its own.
References:
Share a mobile connection by hotspot or tethering on Android
How to share a mobile connection by tethering or hotspot on Android
How to Share Mobile Internet to PC or Other devices
Question # 33
Which of the following is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the eventof hardware failure?
A. Redundant hardware B. UPS C. Cloud-based backup D. RAID
Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of
hardware failure is to use a cloud-based backup solution. A cloud-based backup solution is
a service that copies and stores the data of a virtual machine to a remote server or storage
device over the internet. A cloud-based backup solution can offer several benefits, such as:
High availability and reliability: A cloud-based backup solution can ensure that the
data of a virtual machine is always accessible and recoverable, even if the
hardware that hosts the virtual machine fails or is damaged. A cloud-based backup
solution can also provide redundancy and fault tolerance, by replicating the data
across multiple locations or regions.
Scalability and flexibility: A cloud-based backup solution can adapt to the changing
needs and demands of the virtual machine, by allowing the user to adjust the
backup frequency, retention period, and storage capacity. A cloud-based backup solution can also support different types of backup, such as full, incremental, or
differential, depending on the user’s preferences and requirements.
Cost-effectiveness and simplicity: A cloud-based backup solution can reduce the
cost and complexity of maintaining a backup infrastructure, by eliminating the need
to purchase, install, or manage hardware, software, or licenses. A cloud-based
backup solution can also automate and streamline the backup process, by
providing easy-to-use tools and interfaces, such as web portals, APIs, or scripts.
Other options, such as redundant hardware, UPS, or RAID, may improve the performance
or resilience of the hardware that hosts the virtual machine, but they do not provide a
complete protection for the data of the virtual machine in the event of hardware failure.
Redundant hardware is a technique that uses multiple components or devices to perform
the same function, so that if one fails, another can take over. UPS (uninterruptible power
supply) is a device that provides backup power to a system in case of a power outage or
surge. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technology that combines multiple
disks into a logical unit, to improve the speed, capacity, or reliability of the storage.
However, these options may not prevent data loss or corruption due to other causes, such
as human error, malware, or natural disasters. Therefore, a cloud-based backup solution is
the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure.
References:
What is Cloud Backup? | Microsoft Azure1
Cloud Backup - What is it and how does it work? | Veeam2
Cloud Backup vs. Local Backup: Which Option is Right for You?3
Question # 34
A user needs to transfer files from an Apple phone to a workstation. Which of the followingconnection types should the user utilize?
A. USB-C B. Serial C. Lightning D. NFC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lightning is a proprietary connection type that is used by Apple devices, such as iPhones,
iPads, and iPods, to transfer data, charge, and connect to accessories. Lightning cables
have a reversible 8-pin connector that can be plugged into a USB port on a workstation or
a power adapter. USB-C, serial, and NFC are not compatible with Apple phones.
Which of the following is a scenario in which an F-type connector would be used?
A. A technician is making a serial connection to a hardware device. B. An internet service provider is installing service for a client. C. A user is purchasing a charging cable for a laptop. D. An electrician is upgrading the service on an electrical panel.
Answer: B
Explanation: An F-type connector is a coaxial RF connector that is commonly used for
cable television, satellite television, and cable modems. An internet service provider (ISP)
may use an F-type connector to connect the coaxial cable from the wall outlet to the cable
modem or the set-top box. The F-type connector has a threaded interface that provides a
secure and reliable connection. The F-type connector can also support high-frequency
signals up to several GHz, which can deliver high-speed internet and high-definition
television.
Other scenarios, such as making a serial connection to a hardware device, purchasing a
charging cable for a laptop, or upgrading the service on an electrical panel, are not likely to
use an F-type connector. A serial connection to a hardware device may use a DB-9 or a
DB-25 connector, which are D-shaped connectors with pins. A charging cable for a laptop
may use a USB or a barrel connector, which are flat or cylindrical connectors with contacts.
An electrical panel may use a twist-lock or a pin-and-sleeve connector, which are round
connectors with locking mechanisms.
References:
F connector - Wikipedia1
F-Type Connectors - RF Connectors | Amphenol RF2
How to Install F Connectors on Coaxial Cable - The Spruce3
Question # 36
After moving a user's legacy workstation into a new private office that does not have a LANconnection, the technician is unable to connect to a wireless network. Which of thefollowing is the most likely reason?
A. Missing Wi-Fi adapter B. Wi-Fi AP replacement C. Hidden Wi-Fi SSID D. Incorrect Wi-Fi channel
Answer: A
Explanation: The most likely reason is A. Missing Wi-Fi adapter.
A Wi-Fi adapter is a device that allows a computer to connect to a wireless network. A
legacy workstation may not have a built-in Wi-Fi adapter, or it may have an outdated or
incompatible one. If the workstation does not have a Wi-Fi adapter, it will not be able to
detect or access any wireless networks, regardless of the location, signal strength, or
configuration of the network.
To fix this issue, the technician can install a Wi-Fi adapter on the workstation, either
internally or externally. An internal Wi-Fi adapter is a card that fits into a slot on the
motherboard, while an external Wi-Fi adapter is a device that plugs into a USB port. The
technician should choose a Wi-Fi adapter that is compatible with the workstation’s
operating system, hardware, and wireless standards .
The other options are less likely to be the reason for the issue. A Wi-Fi AP replacement
means changing the wireless access point that provides the network connection. This may
affect the network name, password, or settings, but it should not prevent the workstation
from detecting any wireless networks. A hidden Wi-Fi SSID means that the network name
is not broadcasted publicly, but it can still be accessed by entering the name manually. A
hidden Wi-Fi SSID may make it harder to find the network, but it should not prevent the
workstation from detecting other wireless networks. An incorrect Wi-Fi channel means that
the network is using a frequency band that is crowded or interfered by other devices. This
may affect the network performance or stability, but it should not prevent the workstation
from detecting any wireless networks.
References:
How to Add Wi-Fi to a Desktop Computer - How-To Geek How to Choose a Wireless Adapter for Your Computer - Lifewire
Which of the following devices is capable of dynamically distributing an IP address?
A. Hub B. Switch C. Injector D. Router
Answer: D
Explanation: A router is a device that can dynamically distribute an IP address to the
devices connected to its network using a protocol called DHCP (Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol). DHCP allows a router to automatically assign an IP address and
other network configuration information to a device when it joins the network, without
requiring manual intervention from the administrator. A router can also act as a gateway
between different networks, such as a local area network (LAN) and the internet1.
A hub is a device that connects multiple devices on a network and forwards data packets
between them. However, a hub does not assign IP addresses or perform any routing
functions. A hub operates at the physical layer of the OSI model and does not understand
IP addresses or other network protocols.
A switch is a device that connects multiple devices on a network and forwards data packets
between them based on their MAC addresses. A switch can improve the performance and
security of a network by reducing collisions and isolating traffic. However, a switch does not
assign IP addresses or perform any routing functions. A switch operates at the data link
layer of the OSI model and does not understand IP addresses or other network protocols.
An injector is a device that provides power to another device over an Ethernet cable, such
as a wireless access point or a security camera. This is also known as Power over Ethernet
(PoE). An injector does not assign IP addresses or perform any routing functions. An
injector operates at the physical layer of the OSI model and does not understand IP
addresses or other network protocols.
Question # 38
A technician wants to deploy a .msi package to a corporate network. The technician needsto verify the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the endusers' computers. Which of the following would the technician consider the mostappropriate for this situation?
A. Virtual network B. Application virtualization C. Cross-platform virtualization D. Virtual sandbox E. Virtual desktop
Answer: B
Explanation: Application virtualization is a technique that allows an application to run on a
computer without being installed or affecting other applications on the system. Application
virtualization creates a virtual environment for the application that isolates it from the
underlying operating system and hardware. This way, the technician can verify the
application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users’
computers.
Question # 39
A user is unable to use a drawing stylus on a smartphone. The smartphone did notoriginally come with a stylus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The phone needs to be updated to the latest OS. B. The drawing stylus only works with a special digitizer. C. The stylus must be re-paired to this new device. D. The phone's screen only supports resistive styluses.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A digitizer is a device that converts analog signals, such as touch or pressure, into digital
signals that can be processed by a computer. A digitizer is usually embedded in the screen
of a smartphone or tablet, and it works with a compatible stylus to enable drawing and
writing on the screen1.
There are different types of digitizers and styluses, such as capacitive, resistive, active, and
passive. Capacitive digitizers and styluses work by detecting changes in the electric field
on the screen when the stylus touches it. Resistive digitizers and styluses work by
detecting changes in the resistance on the screen when the stylus presses it. Active
digitizers and styluses work by using an electromagnetic field to communicate between the
stylus and the screen. Passive digitizers and styluses work by using a special material on
the tip of the stylus that mimics the human finger2.
Not all digitizers and styluses are compatible with each other. For example, an active stylus
will not work with a capacitive or resistive digitizer, and vice versa. A passive stylus will
work with any digitizer, but it will not have any advanced features, such as pressure
sensitivity or tilt control2.
Question # 40
A user with a custom hosts file is having difficulty connecting to a locally hosted site on asmall office network. The technician cannot ping the server hostname from the user'scomputer. Which of the following should the technician ensure on the server?
A. The server is configured with a static IP address. B. The server does not have an APIPA. C. The appropriate services are enabled on the server. D. The server's secondary NIC is functioning.
Answer: A
Explanation: A custom hosts file is a file that maps hostnames to IP addresses, allowing
the user to access websites or servers by their names instead of their numerical
addresses. For example, a user can add a line like 192.168.1.100 myserver.local to their
hosts file and then access the server by typing myserver.local in their browser. However,
this method only works if the IP address of the server does not change. If the server is
Question # 41
A user reports that when pressing a radio button on a tablet, an item a couple of inches tothe right of the pressed button gets selected instead. Which of thefollowing components may need to be replaced?
A. Gyroscope B. Battery C. Digitizer D. Glass
Answer: C
Explanation: A digitizer is a component that converts the touch input on a tablet screen
into digital signals that can be processed by the device. A digitizer consists of a thin layer of
transparent material that covers the glass screen and has sensors that detect the position
and pressure of the touch. If the digitizer is damaged, misaligned, or poorly calibrated, it
can cause inaccurate touch input, such as selecting the wrong item or not responding at
all12. Therefore, the most likely cause of the issue in this scenario is a faulty digitizer that
may need to be replaced. The other components are not directly related to the touch input
functionality of the tablet. A gyroscope is a sensor that measures the orientation and
rotation of the device3. A battery is a power source that supplies electricity to the device4.
A glass is a protective layer that covers the screen and prevents scratches and cracks5.
References
1: What is a Digitizer? - Definition from Techopedia
2: How to Fix a Broken Digitizer on a Tablet | Chron.com
3: What is a Gyroscope Sensor in Mobile Phones? - Definition from Techopedia
4: What is a Battery? - Definition from Techopedia
5: What is Glass? - Definition from Techopedia
Question # 42
A customer reports that, after a technician replaced a laptop screen, the laptop is only ableto connect to a Wi-Fi network if it is positioned very close to a wireless access point. Whichof the followingshould the technician verify first?
A. The internal antennas are connected. B. The device has the latest OS updates. C. The wireless device drivers are the latest version D. Airplane mode is disabled. E. The battery is charging.
Answer: A
Explanation: The internal antennas are the components that allow the laptop to receive
and transmit wireless signals from and to the wireless access point. The internal antennas
are usually located inside or around the laptop screen, and they are connected to the wireless network card or adapter by thin wires or cables. If the internal antennas are
disconnected, damaged, or misaligned, the laptop may experience wireless connectivity
issues, such as low signal strength, limited range, or intermittent connection.
In this scenario, a customer reports that, after a technician replaced a laptop screen, the
laptop is only able to connect to a Wi-Fi network if it is positioned very close to a wireless
access point. This could indicate that the technician accidentally disconnected or damaged
the internal antennas during the screen replacement process, and that the laptop is not
receiving enough wireless signals from the wireless access point. Therefore, the first thing
that the technician should verify is that the internal antennas are properly connected and
positioned inside or around the laptop screen.
To verify and reconnect the internal antennas, the technician should follow these steps :
Turn off the laptop and disconnect it from any power source or external device.
Remove the battery and any screws that secure the laptop screen bezel.
Carefully pry off the laptop screen bezel and expose the internal antennas.
Check if the internal antennas are intact and securely connected to the wireless
network card or adapter. The internal antennas may have different colors or labels,
such as black, white, gray, main, aux, or 1, 2.
If the internal antennas are disconnected or loose, reconnect them to the
corresponding connectors on the wireless network card or adapter. Make sure that
they snap into place and that there is no gap or bend in the wires or cables.
If the internal antennas are damaged or broken, replace them with compatible
ones. Make sure that they have the same length and shape as the original ones.
Realign and reposition the internal antennas inside or around the laptop screen.
Make sure that they do not interfere with any other component or cable, and that
they follow the original path and direction.
Reattach the laptop screen bezel and secure it with screws.
Reinsert the battery and turn on the laptop.
Test the wireless connectivity and performance of the laptop.
Question # 43
An IT technician is troubleshooting an issue with connecting a new laptop to a company'swireless network. Which of the following diagnostic steps should the technician take first?
A. Review the network settings in the OS. B. Install the latest firmware updates on the WAPs. C. Increase the signal strength of the router. D. Reset the router and reconfigure the wireless settings.
Answer: A
Explanation: The first step in troubleshooting any network issue is to identify the problem
and gather information from the user and the device. Reviewing the network settings in the
OS can help the technician verify if the laptop is configured correctly to connect to the
wireless network, such as the SSID, security type, password, IP address, DNS server, etc.
This can also help the technician rule out any software or driver issues that might prevent
the laptop from connecting to the network. This is a logical and simple step that can be
done before attempting any other actions that might affect the network infrastructure or
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide
Question # 44
Which of the following is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the eventof hardware failure?
A. Redundant hardware B. UPS C. Cloud-based backup D. RAID
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud-based backup is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine, as it allows
the data to be stored in a remote location that is accessible from anywhere. Cloud-based
backup also provides scalability, security, and reliability for data
protection3. References: [Cloud Backup]
Question # 45
Which of the following network types is used for pairing a Bluetooth device to asmartphone?
A. PAN B. WAN C. LAN D. MAN
Answer: A
Explanation: A PAN, or Personal Area Network, is the network type that is used for pairing
a Bluetooth device to a smartphone. A PAN is a network that connects personal devices, such as phones, tablets, laptops, headphones, speakers, or printers, over a short distance,
usually less than 10 meters or 33 feet. A PAN can use wireless technologies, such as
Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, or infrared, to enable communication and data exchange between the
devices. A Bluetooth PAN, also known as a piconet, can consist of up to eight devices, one
of which acts as the master and the others as slaves. The master device initiates the
pairing process with the other devices and controls the data transmission. The devices use
radio waves in the 2.4 GHz frequency band to communicate with each other. Bluetooth is a
low-power, low-cost, and secure technology that is widely used for creating PANs.
References:
What Is Bluetooth Wireless Networking?1
Bluetooth - GeeksforGeeks2
Bluetooth | Institute of Physics3
6 Different Types of Bluetooth Devices - TechJeny4
Question # 46
A technician installed a Cat 5 UTP cable approximately 275ft (84m) from a network switchin an office to a workstation located on a factory floor. The technician sees both a flashinggreen LED and a flashing orange LED on the workstation's NIC. Which of the followingshould the technician do first?
A. Check for loose connections, pinched bends, and physical damage. B. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the Cat 5 UTP cablerun. C. Replace the entire run of Cat 5 UTP cable with Cat 5 STP cable. D. Upgrade the entire cable run to multimode fiber.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in
the Cat 5 UTP cable run. The problem is most likely caused by the excessive length of the Cat 5 UTP cable, which
exceeds the maximum limit of 100 meters (328 feet) for Ethernet over twisted pair12. This
can result in signal degradation, interference, and packet loss, which can affect the network
performance and connectivity. The flashing green LED indicates that the NIC is receiving
data, while the flashing orange LED indicates that the NIC is sending data3. However,
these LEDs do not indicate the quality or speed of the data transmission, which may be
poor due to the long cable run.
The best solution is to install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the
Cat 5 UTP cable run. A powered hub is a device that can amplify and regenerate the
signal, as well as provide additional ports for connecting more devices. A powered hub can
extend the effective range of the cable and improve the network performance and
connectivity1.
The other options are not the best solutions for this problem. Checking for loose
connections, pinched bends, and physical damage is a good troubleshooting step, but it is
unlikely to solve the problem if the cable is too long. Replacing the entire run of Cat 5 UTP
cable with Cat 5 STP cable may reduce some interference, but it will not solve the problem
of signal degradation due to the length. Upgrading the entire cable run to multimode fiber
may provide better performance and range, but it will also require replacing the NICs and
switches, which will be costly and time-consuming.
Question # 47
Which of the following is the best environment for an engineer to use for researchpurposes?
A. Host B. Sandbox C. Simulated production D. Cross-platform
Answer: B
Explanation:
A sandbox is a virtual environment that isolates the engineer’s research activities from the
rest of the system. This allows the engineer to test, experiment, and modify the system
without affecting the real data, applications, or settings. A sandbox is the best environment
for research purposes because it provides a safe and controlled way to explore new ideas,
simulate scenarios, and troubleshoot problems. A sandbox can also be easily reset or
deleted after the research is done.
References
What is a Sandbox Environment?
Chapter 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question # 48
Which of the following server types can dynamically assign primary and secondary DNS?
A. DHCP server B. Global catalog server C. Web server D. Name server
Answer: A
Explanation: A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server is a server type that
can dynamically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to
clients, such as primary and secondary DNS (Domain Name System) servers. DNS servers
are responsible for resolving hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. A global catalog
server, a web server, and a name server are not involved in DHCP operations.
A developer is requesting permission to utilize client-side virtualization. The developerwould like to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid negativeimpacts of experimental code. Which of the following provides the best solution for thedeveloper?
A. Cross-platform functionality B. Software compatibility C. Test case development D. Sandbox environment
Answer: D
Explanation: The best solution for the developer is D. Sandbox environment.
Client-side virtualization is a technology that allows users to run multiple operating systems
and applications on the same device, without affecting the host system or the network1. A
sandbox environment is a type of client-side virtualization that creates a secure and
isolated space for testing, debugging, or experimenting with code, without risking any
damage or interference to the rest of the system2. A sandbox environment can provide several benefits for the developer, such as23:
•It can simulate different scenarios and conditions for the code, such as different operating
systems, browsers, devices, network settings, etc.
•It can protect the code from external threats, such as malware, hackers, or unauthorized
access.
•It can prevent the code from affecting other applications or processes on the device or the
network, such as consuming resources, causing errors, or leaking data.
•It can allow the developer to easily revert any changes or restore the original state of the
system, if something goes wrong.
Therefore, a sandbox environment can provide the best solution for the developer who
wants to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid negative impacts
2: What is a Sandbox Environment? | VMware Glossary
3: What is Sandbox Testing? - Definition from Techopedia
Question # 50
A network technician is working to locate an end user's Cat 6 cable within a network rack.The server rack is poorly documented, and a cable management system has not beenimplemented_ Which of the following would be the best tool to best identify the correctcable?
A. Cable tester B. Network tap C. Toner probe D. Loopback plug
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best tool to identify the correct cable is C. Toner probe.
A toner probe is a device that can be used to locate and trace a specific cable within a
network rack or a wall outlet. A toner probe consists of two parts: a tone generator and a
tone detector. The tone generator is connected to one end of the cable and sends an
audible signal through the cable. The tone detector is used to scan the other end of the
cable and pick up the signal. The tone detector emits a sound or a light when it detects the
signal, indicating the correct cable.
A toner probe can be useful for network technicians who need to locate an end user’s Cat 6
cable within a network rack that is poorly documented and has no cable management
system. A Cat 6 cable is a type of twisted pair cable that can support high-speed data
transmission over Ethernet networks. A network rack is a frame that holds network
equipment, such as servers, switches, routers, or patch panels. A cable management system is a set of devices or methods that organize and secure the cables within a network
rack .
The other options are not the best tools to identify the correct cable, because they have
different purposes or limitations. A cable tester (option A) is a device that can be used to
test the functionality and quality of a cable, such as its continuity, resistance, or
interference. A cable tester can help diagnose and troubleshoot faulty cables, but it cannot
locate or trace specific cables within a network rack. A network tap (option B) is a device
that can be used to monitor and analyze the traffic and data that pass through a network. A
network tap can help capture and inspect network packets, but it cannot locate or trace
specific cables within a network rack. A loopback plug (option D) is a device that can be
used to test the functionality and connectivity of a port or an interface. A loopback plug can
help verify if a port or an interface is working properly, but it cannot locate or trace specific
cables within a network rack.
For more information about toner probes and other network tools, you can refer to the
following web search results: [What Is a Toner Probe?], [What Is Cat 6 Cable?], [What Is a
Network Rack?], [What Is a Cable Tester?], [What Is a Network Tap?], [What Is a
Loopback Plug?].
Question # 51
A technician is troubleshooting a thermal receipt printer that will not print. Which of thefollowing should the technician do first to restore functionality?
A. Update the printer driver on the computer. B. Replace the thermal printhead. C. Make sure the thermal head is heating up. D. Flip the paper roll orientation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A thermal receipt printer uses heat to print on thermal paper, which has a special coating
that reacts to heat and produces black marks. If the paper roll is inserted in the wrong
orientation, the printer will not be able to print anything on the paper. Therefore, the first
thing the technician should do is to check if the paper roll is loaded correctly, with the paper feeding under, not over. This is a common and easy mistake to fix, and it does not require
•POS Thermal Receipt Printer Troubleshoot - Not Printing Evenly, video at 0:15
•Receipt Printer Troubleshooting – Shopfront, bullet point 2
Question # 52
A technician is creating a consecutive range of IP addresses that a server can select fromto fulfill requests from network clients. Which of the following is the technician creating?
A. DHCP scope B. Static IP list C. DNS A records D. Automatic private IP addressing
Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is A. DHCP scope.
A DHCP scope is a consecutive range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can select from
to fulfill requests from network clients. A DHCP server is a device that automatically
assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices that request
them. A DHCP scope defines the pool of available IP addresses, as well as the subnet
mask, default gateway, DNS servers, and lease duration for each IP address. A DHCP
scope can also include exclusions, reservations, and policies to customize the IP address allocation process12.
A static IP list is a list of IP addresses that are manually assigned to devices and do not
change over time. A static IP list does not require a DHCP server, but it requires more
administrative effort and coordination to avoid conflicts or errors. A static IP list is not a
consecutive range of IP addresses that a server can select from3.
DNS A records are DNS records that map a domain name to an IPv4 address. DNS is a
system that translates human-readable domain names into machine-readable IP
addresses. DNS A records are not a range of IP addresses that a server can select from,
but a way of resolving domain names to IP addresses.
Automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows that allows devices to
self-assign an IP address in the absence of a DHCP server or a static IP configuration.
APIPA uses the 169.254.0.0/16 address range, which is reserved for link-local
communication. APIPA does not create a range of IP addresses that a server can select
from, but a fallback mechanism for devices that cannot obtain an IP address from another
source.
For more information about DHCP scopes and other related topics, you can refer to the
following web search results: DHCP Scope - NETWORK ENCYCLOPEDIA, Managing
Microsoft DHCP Scope and other Components - ATA Learning, Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol (DHCP) | Microsoft Learn.
Question # 53
A technician is setting up three web servers foe a retail company that takes online ordersfor its products. Which of the following network host services should the technician use toensure the servers' resources will be utilized efficiently?
A. UTM appliance B. AAA server C. Spam gateway D. Load balancer
Answer: D
Explanation: A load balancer is a network device or service that distributes incoming
network traffic across multiple servers, based on various criteria, such as availability,
capacity, performance, or location. A load balancer can ensure that the servers’ resources
will be utilized efficiently, as well as improve reliability, scalability, and security. A load
balancer can be hardware-based or software-based, or a combination of both. Reference:
A user has been having issues charging a laptop after turning it on and has noticed thelaptop screen is dim. Which of the following components most likely needs to be replaced?
A. LCD B. Video card C. Digitizer D. inverter
Answer: D
Explanation: An inverter is a component that converts DC power to AC power for the
backlight of an LCD (liquid crystal display) screen. If the inverter is faulty, the screen may
appear dim or dark, even if the brightness settings are adjusted. Replacing the inverter may
fix the issue. The LCD itself, the video card, and the digitizer are not related to the screen
A customer purchased an active touch pen for a tablet PC. After the customer used the penfor a few days, it stopped working. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
A. The tablet screen is scratched. B. The pen software is out of date. C. The pen batteries need recharging. D. Software updates disabled the pen.
Answer: C
Explanation: The most likely answer is C. The pen batteries need recharging.
An active touch pen is a stylus that uses a battery to power features such as pressure
sensitivity, buttons, or Bluetooth connectivity. If the pen batteries are low or depleted, the
pen may stop working or become inaccurate1. To fix this issue, you should recharge the
pen batteries using the provided charger or cable, or replace them with new ones if they
are not rechargeable1.
The other options are less likely to cause the issue. A scratched tablet screen may affect
the touch sensitivity, but it should not affect the pen functionality. The pen software may
need updating to improve performance or compatibility, but it should not stop the pen from
working altogether. Software updates may disable the pen if they change the settings or
drivers, but this can be fixed by re-enabling the pen or reinstalling the drivers2.
References:
1: Troubleshoot your Surface Pen - Microsoft Support
2: Windows 10 touch screen: active pen works, finger does not - Super User
Question # 56
Every time a user tries to print a multipage document, the user is unable to print on bothsides of the page. Which of the following settings will most likely resolve this issue?
A. Orientation B. Duplex C. Quality D. Print tray
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Duplex.
Duplex printing is the process of printing on both sides of a sheet of paper automatically or
manually. Duplex printing can save paper, reduce clutter, and create professional-looking
documents. To print on both sides of the paper, the printer must support duplex printing or
the user must manually reinsert the pages to print the second side.
Orientation is the direction in which the paper is printed, either portrait (vertical) or
landscape (horizontal). Orientation does not affect the ability to print on both sides of the
paper.
Quality is the resolution or sharpness of the printed image, measured in dots per inch (dpi).
Quality does not affect the ability to print on both sides of the paper.
Print tray is the part of the printer that holds and feeds the paper into the printer. Print tray
does not affect the ability to print on both sides of the paper.
To enable duplex printing on a Windows PC, follow these steps1:
Open the document for printing, then select File > Print.
In Settings, select Manually Print on Both Sides, then Print.
Follow the instructions on the screen to flip and reinsert the pages.
To enable duplex printing on a Mac, follow these steps2:
Open the document for printing, then select File > Print.
In Layout, select Two-Sided, then Long-Edge binding or Short-Edge binding.
Click Print.
References:
Print on both sides of the paper (duplex printing) in Word
How to Print Double-Sided on a Windows PC or Mac Computer
Question # 57
Which of the following is considered a connectionless protocol?
A. SSH B. TCP C. HTTPS D. UDP
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is D. UDP.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not establish a
connection before sending or receiving data. UDP simply sends datagrams to the
destination without checking if the receiver is ready or not. UDP does not guarantee
reliable delivery, error correction, or in-order arrival of the data. UDP is faster and more
efficient than connection-oriented protocols for applications that do not require reliability,
such as streaming audio or video1
A. SSH (Secure Shell) is not a correct answer. SSH is a connection-oriented protocol that
uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport layer. SSH establishes a secure
and encrypted connection between two network endpoints before exchanging data. SSH
provides authentication, confidentiality, and integrity for remote login and command
execution2
B. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is not a correct answer. TCP is a connectionoriented
protocol that establishes a connection before sending or receiving data. TCP
ensures reliable delivery, error correction, and in-order arrival of the data. TCP is slower
and more complex than connectionless protocols, but it provides more reliability and quality
of service for applications that require it, such as web browsing or email1
C. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is not a correct answer. HTTPS is a
connection-oriented protocol that uses TCP as its transport layer and SSL/TLS as its
security layer. HTTPS establishes a secure and encrypted connection between a web
browser and a web server before exchanging data. HTTPS provides authentication,
confidentiality, and integrity for web transactions, such as online banking or shopping1
Question # 58
A user reports the following:I. When accessing large images, PC performance is degraded.2. When accessing small text files, PC performance is as expected.Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?
A. HDD fragmentation B. RAID controller failure C. RAID array configuration errors D. Insufficient power supply
Answer: A
Explanation:
HDD fragmentation is a condition where the data on a hard disk drive (HDD) is not stored
in contiguous clusters, but scattered across different physical locations on the disk. This
happens when files are created, modified, or deleted over time, leaving gaps and
fragments of data on the disk. HDD fragmentation can affect the performance of the PC,
especially when accessing large files that require more disk operations to read or write12.
According to some web search results123, some signs and symptoms of a heavily fragmented HDD are:
•Longer load times for files and programs
•Graphics-heavy apps and games take too long to load new windows or process new
environments
•Reduced disk space and efficiency
•Increased disk noise and temperature
•Accelerated disk wear and failure
To fix this issue, the user can use a tool called Disk Defragmenter, which is built-in in
Windows. Disk Defragmenter rearranges the fragmented data on the HDD so that it is
stored in contiguous clusters, improving the disk performance and reliability1. Disk
Defragmenter can run on a schedule or manually by following these steps1:
•Open Disk Defragmenter by clicking the Start button. In the search box, type Disk
Defragmenter, and then, in the list of results, click Disk Defragmenter.
•Under Current status, select the disk you want to defragment.
•To determine if the disk needs to be defragmented or not, click Analyze disk. If you’re
prompted for an administrator password or confirmation, type the password or provide
confirmation.
•Once Windows is finished analyzing the disk, you can check the percentage of
fragmentation on the disk in the Last Run column. If the number is above 10%, you should
defragment the disk.
•Click Defragment disk. If you’re prompted for an administrator password or confirmation,
type the password or provide confirmation.
•Disk Defragmenter might take from several minutes to a few hours to finish, depending on
the size and degree of fragmentation of your hard disk. You can still use your computer
during the defragmentation process.
Question # 59
A company laptop uses a docking station with an integrated NIC and is unable to access awired SOHO network using DHCP. A technician runs ipconfig anddiscovers the laptop hasan IPv4 assignment of 169.254.0.9. The NIC does not have any link or activity lights on.Which of the following should the technician do next?
A. Restart the laptop in safe mode. B. Reboot the DHCP server. C. Reset the network adapter. D. Replace the laptop. E. Reseat the laptop in the docking station.
Answer: E
Explanation: The most likely answer is E. Reseat the laptop in the docking station.
The IPv4 address of 169.254.0.9 indicates that the laptop is using an Automatic Private IP
Address (APIPA), which means that it could not obtain a valid IP address from the DHCP server on the network1. This could be caused by a physical or logical problem with the
network adapter, the cable, the docking station, or the network itself2.
One of the possible solutions is to reseat the laptop in the docking station, which means to
remove it and insert it again, making sure that it is properly aligned and connected. This
can help fix any loose or faulty connections between the laptop and the docking station,
and between the docking station and the network cable3. Reseating the laptop can also
trigger a new DHCP request and renew the IP address4.
Other possible solutions include resetting the network adapter, replacing the network cable,
rebooting the DHCP server, or restarting the laptop in safe mode. However, these are less
likely to be effective than reseating the laptop, as they involve more steps and may not
address the root cause of the problem234. Replacing the laptop is an extreme and
unnecessary measure, as there is no evidence that the laptop itself is faulty.
Question # 60
A SOHO customer would like to purchase network hardware to enhance security. Thehardware should perform stateful packet Inspection Which of the following would BESTaddress the customer's need?
A. Switch B. Firewall C. Router D. Proxy
Answer: B
Explanation: A firewall is a network device that performs stateful packet inspection, which
means it analyzes incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules and
filters, and allows or blocks packets based on their source, destination, protocol, port, or
content. A firewall can enhance security by preventing unauthorized access, blocking
malicious traffic, enforcing policies, and logging events. A firewall can be hardware-based
or software-based, or a combination of both. Reference:
A user's smartphone loses its charge rapidly. The user also notices that the phone feelsthicker than it was when it was new. Which of the following is the most likely cause of theissue?
A. Bad battery B. Malware infection C. Damaged charge port D. Poor connectivity
Answer: A
Explanation:
The user's smartphone is losing its charge rapidly and feels thicker than it was when
new. Both of these symptoms point towards a bad battery.
A bad battery loses its ability to hold a charge, leading to rapid draining. Additionally, a bad
battery can physically swell, which explains why the phone feels thicker.
Malware infection, damaged charge port, and poor connectivity are unlikely causes for both
the rapid draining and the increased thickness.
References
CompTIA A+ Certification Core 1 220-1101 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Mobile
An internet service provider is delivering service through a copper medium with sharedcustomer bandwidth. Which of the following services has most likely been installed?
A. Fiber B. Cable C. NIC D. DSL
Answer: B
Explanation: Cable internet service is delivered through coaxial cables that are shared
among multiple customers in a neighborhood. This means that the bandwidth may vary
depending on the network congestion. Fiber, NIC, and DSL are not copper-based or
A technician is configuring the settings on a multifunction printer so the device can beshared across the LAN_ Which of the following should the technician do to enable theprinter to be shared across the network?
A. Install the correct print driver B. Configure the IP settings. C. Enable the web services. D. Enable the network scanning feature.
Answer: B
Explanation: To enable the printer to be shared across the network, the technician should
configure the IP settings of the printer. The IP settings include the IP address, subnet
mask, default gateway, and DNS server of the printer. The IP settings allow the printer to
communicate with other devices on the network and access network resources such as
print servers or cloud services.
The technician can configure the IP settings of the printer in different ways, such as:
Using the printer’s control panel or web interface to manually enter the IP settings
or obtain them automatically from a DHCP server.
Using the printer’s software or driver to assign a static or dynamic IP address to
the printer.
Using a network discovery tool to find and configure the printer on the network.
The technician should also make sure that the IP settings of the printer are compatible with
the network configuration and do not cause any conflicts or errors.
Question # 64
During an OS migration, a technician is unable to find compatible current software for aspecialized hardware device. Which of the following actionsshould the technician take to complete the migration?
A. Restrict user access. B. Virtualize the application. C. Replace the PC. D. Upgrade the BIOS to UEFI.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtualizing the application is the best action that a technician can take to complete the OS
migration when there is no compatible current software for a specialized hardware device.
Virtualizing the application means running the application in a virtual machine (VM) that
emulates the previous OS environment that supports the application and the hardware
device. This way, the technician can avoid the need to replace the PC or the hardware
device, or to restrict user access to the application. Virtualizing the application also allows
the technician to benefit from the new OS features and security updates, while maintaining
the functionality and compatibility of the application and the hardware device.
The other options are not as effective or feasible for this scenario. Restricting user access
may prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the application or the hardware device,
but it does not solve the compatibility issue or allow the OS migration to proceed.
Replacing the PC or the hardware device may be costly, time-consuming, or impractical,
especially if the hardware device is rare, expensive, or customized. Upgrading the BIOS to
UEFI may improve the boot speed, security, and compatibility of the PC, but it does not
guarantee that the application or the hardware device will work with the new OS.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
How to Run Old Programs on Windows 10 - MakeUseOf3
How to Run Windows 10 in a Virtual Machine - PCMag4
Question # 65
An administrator is responding to a network server outage. The administrator has logged into the server to troubleshoot the outage. Which of the following is the first step theadministrator should take when attempting to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Document the results. B. Analyze the error logs. C. Check the physical connections. D. Upgrade the server firmware.
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Analyze the error logs.
Error logs are files that record the events and errors that occur on a server or a network
device. They can provide valuable information about the cause and the time of the outage,
as well as any warnings or alerts that preceded it. Analyzing the error logs can help the
administrator narrow down the possible sources of the problem and identify the best course
of action to resolve it.
The first step in troubleshooting a network is to identify the problem1. As a part of this step,
the administrator should gather information about the current state of the network using the
network troubleshooting tools that are available1. One of these tools is the error log viewer,
which can be accessed through the server’s operating system or a network monitoring
software. The administrator should look for any entries that indicate a failure, a crash, a
timeout, or an exception in the error logs. The administrator should also note the date and
time of the entries, as well as the severity and the frequency of the errors.
The other options are less likely to be the first step in troubleshooting, because:
•Documenting the results is an important step in troubleshooting, but it should be done
after identifying and resolving the problem, not before. Documenting the results can help
the administrator keep track of the actions taken, the changes made, and the outcomes
achieved. It can also help prevent future problems by providing a reference for best
practices and lessons learned1.
•Checking the physical connections is another important step in troubleshooting, but it
should be done after analyzing the error logs, not before. Physical connections are the
cables and ports that link the server to other devices on the network. They can affect the
quality and stability of the network signal. If the error logs do not indicate any software or
configuration issues, then checking the physical connections can help determine if there is
any damage or interference in the hardware2.
•Upgrading the server firmware is a possible solution for some network problems, but it
should not be done as a first step in troubleshooting, unless there is a clear indication that
the firmware is outdated or corrupted. Firmware is a type of software that controls the basic
functions of a hardware device. Upgrading the firmware can improve performance, security,
and compatibility, but it can also introduce new bugs or conflicts with other software or
hardware components. Therefore, upgrading the firmware should be done with caution and
only after backing up data and settings3.
For more information and tips on how to troubleshoot network issues, you can visit these
links:
•A Guide to Network Troubleshooting - CompTIA
•What is Network Troubleshooting? How to Fix Network Issues - SolarWinds
A user reports that a computer has been randomly shutting down without warning. Which ofthe following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. Corrupted OS B. Incompatible memory modules C. Overheated CPU D. Low system resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
An overheated CPU is the most likely cause of a computer that has been randomly shutting
down without warning. A CPU generates heat when it performs calculations, and if the heat
is not dissipated properly, it can damage the CPU or cause it to malfunction. A computer
that shuts down randomly is a common symptom of an overheated CPU, as the system
tries to protect itself from further damage by shutting down or restarting.
The other options are not as likely to cause this issue. A corrupted OS may cause the
computer to crash, display errors, or fail to boot, but it does not affect the CPU temperature
or the system fan. Incompatible memory modules may cause the computer to beep, display
a blue screen, or fail to recognize the installed RAM, but they do not cause the CPU to
overheat or the system to shut down randomly. Low system resources may cause the
computer to slow down, freeze, or display a low memory warning, but they do not affect the
CPU temperature or the system fan.
To troubleshoot and resolve an overheated CPU issue, the user should check and clean
the air vents, provide proper ventilation, apply thermal paste, replace the fan or the heat
sink, or upgrade the CPU if necessary. The user should also update the BIOS and the
device drivers, adjust the power settings, and monitor the system temperature using
diagnostic tools.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
How to Troubleshoot Fan Issues | Dell US3
Why your laptop fan is loud and how to fix it | Asurion4
HP Notebook PCs - Fan is noisy and spins constantly (Windows)5
Question # 67
An IT technician is working on a help desk ticket concerning a user's inability to create avirtual machine. The technician has already checked the RAM and HDD space in the user'smachine. Which of the following settings should the technician check NEXT to helptroubleshoot the issue?
A. BitLocker B. MSConfig C. BIOS D. Secure Boot
Answer: C
Explanation: One of the possible settings that could prevent a user from creating a virtual
machine is BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). BIOS is a firmware that controls how
hardware components interact with each other and with software applications. Some BIOS
settings may need to be changed or enabled to allow virtualization, such as VT-x (Intel
Virtualization Technology) or AMD-V (AMD Virtualization). The other options are not related
to virtualization settings. Verified References: [How To Enable Virtualization In BIOS
Settings].
Question # 68
A customer's laptop is making clicking sounds in the area where non-volatile storage isinstalled. A technician examines the laptop and confirms the issue. Which of the followingis the most appropriate replacement part?
A. 7,200rpm HDD B. NVMe SSD C. M.2 SATA SSD D. SCSI 15,000rpm HDD
Answer: B
Explanation: NVMe stands for Non-Volatile Memory Express, and it is a type of SSD (solid
state drive) that uses PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) interface to
connect to a computer. NVMe SSDs offer faster performance and lower latency than other
types of SSDs, such as SATA (Serial ATA) or M.2 SATA. If a user reports that a PC
occasionally fails to boot and makes clicking sounds in the area where non-volatile storage
is installed, it indicates that the hard drive is failing and needs to be replaced with an NVMe SSD.
Question # 69
Which of the following allows several websites from different companies to be housed onthe same virtual server?
A. Rapid elasticity B. High availability C. Shared resources D. Metered utilization
Answer: C
Explanation: Shared resources is the concept that allows several websites from different
companies to be housed on the same virtual server. A virtual server is a software-based
server that runs on a physical server and can host multiple virtual machines (VMs). Each
VM can run a different operating system and application, such as a website, and have its
own allocated resources, such as CPU, memory, disk space, and network bandwidth.
However, the VMs share the underlying hardware resources of the physical server, which reduces the cost and complexity of maintaining separate servers for each website. This
also enables rapid scalability, as new VMs can be created or deleted as needed.
One of the methods to host multiple websites on the same virtual server is to use virtual
hosts. Virtual hosts are a feature of web servers, such as Apache, that allow the web
server to serve different websites based on the domain name or IP address requested by
the client. For example, a web server can host two websites, a.example.com and
b.example.com, on the same virtual server and the same port (such as 80 or 443), by using
virtual hosts to map each domain name to a different document root directory. The web
server will then deliver the content of the corresponding website to the client based on the
domain name in the HTTP request header.
References:
How to Host Multiple Websites With One Apache Server1
How to run multiple sites on one apache instance2
Multiple different website hosting on same port 443 and same server or …3
When several name-based virtual hosts on the same web server share the …4
How to Host Multiple Sites on One Server - Server Mania5
Question # 70
A user reports intermittent connectivity. The technician checks the network logs and seesthe following output:Interface 0/1 Status UpInterface 0/1 Status DownInterface 0/1 Status Up 13:03:20Interface 0/1 Status Down 13:04:10Switch elected as Root bridgeInterface 0/1 Status Up 13:05:40Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?
A. External interference B. High latency C. Jitter D. Port flapping
Answer: D
Explanation: Port flapping, also known as link flapping, is a situation in which a physical interface on the
switch continually goes up and down, causing intermittent connectivity for the devices
connected to that port12. Port flapping can be caused by various factors, such as faulty or
incompatible cables, hardware issues, configuration errors, or other network problems123.
The network logs show that interface 0/1 on the switch changes its status from up to down
and vice versa several times within a short period of time. This indicates that the port is
flapping and affecting the network connectivity. The log also shows that the switch was
elected as the root bridge, which means that it is the central point of a spanning tree
protocol (STP) network. STP is a protocol that prevents loops in a network by blocking
some ports and creating a tree-like topology. Port flapping can cause STP to recalculate
the topology and change the status of the ports, which can further disrupt the network
performance2.
To troubleshoot port flapping, the technician should check the physical and hardware
aspects of the device, such as cables, SFPs, gigabit interface converters, and power
supplies. The technician should also check the configuration settings of the port, such as
auto-negotiation, duplex mode, speed, power-saving features, and smartport. The
technician should also check for other network issues that may cause port flapping, such
as link synchronization and spanning tree issues123.
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