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CompTIA 220-1102 Frequently Asked Questions
CompTIA 220-1102 Sample Questions
Question # 1
Which of the following environments allows for the testing of critical systems without therisk of them being negatively impacted by changes?
A. Regression B. Cloud C. Production D. Sandbox
Answer: D
Explanation: A sandbox is an isolated environment that allows for the testing of critical
systems without the risk of them being negatively impacted by changes. A sandbox can be
used to simulate real-world scenarios, experiment with new features, debug errors, or
evaluate the performance and security of a system. A sandbox can be created using
virtualization, emulation, or containerization technologies. A sandbox prevents any changes
made in the testing environment from affecting the production environment, which is the
Which of the following editions of Windows 10 requires reactivation every 180 days?
A. Enterprise B. Pro for Workstation C. Home D. Pro
Answer: A
Explanation: Windows 10 Enterprise is an edition of Windows 10 that is designed for large
organizations that need advanced security and management features. Windows 10
Enterprise can be activated using different methods, such as Multiple Activation Key
(MAK), Active Directory-based Activation (ADBA), or Key Management Service (KMS)1.
KMS is a method of activation that uses a local server to activate multiple devices on a
network. KMS activations are valid for 180 days and need to be renewed periodically by
connecting to the KMS server2. If a device does not renew its activation within 180 days, it
will enter a grace period of 30 days, after which it will display a warning message and lose
some functionality until it is reactivated3. The other editions of Windows 10 do not require
reactivation every 180 days. Windows 10 Pro for Workstation is an edition of Windows 10
that is designed for high-performance devices that need advanced features such as ReFS
file system, persistent memory, and faster file sharing. Windows 10 Pro for Workstation can
be activated using a digital license or a product key. Windows 10 Home is an edition of
Windows 10 that is designed for personal or home use. Windows 10 Home can be
activated using a digital license or a product key. Windows 10 Pro is an edition of Windows
10 that is designed for business or professional use. Windows 10 Pro can be activated
using a digital license or a product key. None of these editions require reactivation every
180 days unless there are significant hardware changes or other issues that affect the
activation status.
Question No : 522
CompTIA 220-1102 : Practice Test
Question # 3
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of scripting languages?
A. To access the hardware of the computer it is running on B. To automate tasks and reduce the amount of manual labor C. To abstract the complexity of the computer system D. To compile the program into an executable file
Answer: B
Explanation: Scripting languages are used to write small to medium-sized programs that
perform specific tasks. Some common uses of scripting languages are: automating
repetitive processes, web development, system administration, data processing,
multimedia and games, report generation, document and text processing, writing plugins
and extensions for existing programs and applications1.
A technician receives an invalid certificate error when visiting a website. Other workstationson the same local network are unable to replicate this issue. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
A. Date and time B. User access control C. UEFI boot mode D. Log-on times
Answer: A
Explanation: Date and time is the most likely cause of the issue. The date and time
settings on a workstation affect the validity of the certificates used by websites to establish
secure connections. If the date and time are incorrect, the workstation may not recognize
the certificate as valid and display an invalid certificate error. Other workstations on the
same local network may not have this issue if their date and time are correct. User access
control, UEFI boot mode, and log-on times are not likely causes of the issue. User access
control is a feature that prevents unauthorized changes to the system by prompting for
confirmation or credentials. UEFI boot mode is a firmware interface that controls the boot
process of the workstation. Log-on times are settings that restrict when a user can log in to
the workstation. None of these factors affect the validity of the certificates used by
websites. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14
.pkg and .dmg are files used to distribute and install applications on macOS. .pkg files are
installer packages that may contain multiple files and executable code, while .dmg files are
disk images that can contain a single bundled application or multiple applications. .app files
are typically the main executable files for macOS applications. The other options listed are
file extensions for applications or installers on other platforms (such as .deb for Debianbased
Linux systems, .msi for Windows, and .apk for Android). This information is covered
in the Comptia A+ Core2 documents/guide under the Mac OS section.
Question # 6
A desktop support technician is tasked with migrating several PCs from Windows 7 Pro toWindows 10 Pro, The technician must ensure files and user preferences are retained, mustperform the operation locally, and should migrate one station at a time. Which of thefollowing methods would be MOST efficient?
A. Golden image B. Remote network install C. In-place upgrade D. Clean install
Answer: C
Explanation:
An in-place upgrade is the most efficient method for migrating from Windows 7 Pro to
Windows 10 Pro, as it will retain all user files and preferences, can be done locally, and can
be done one station at a time. An in-place upgrade involves installing the new version of
Windows over the existing version, and can be done quickly and easily.
Question # 7
A kiosk, which is running Microsoft Windows 10, relies exclusively on a numeric keypad toallow customers to enter their ticket numbers but no other information. If the kiosk is idle forfour hours, the login screen locks. Which of the following sign-on options would allow anyemployee the ability to unlock the kiosk?
A. Requiring employees to enter their usernames and passwords B. Setting up facial recognition for each employee C. Using a PIN and providing it to employees D. Requiring employees to use their fingerprints
Answer: C
Explanation: The best sign-on option that would allow any employee the ability to unlock
the kiosk that relies exclusively on a numeric keypad is to use a PIN and provide it to
employees. A PIN is a Personal Identification Number that is a numeric code that can be
used as part of authentication or access control. A PIN can be entered using only a
numeric keypad and can be easily shared with employees who need to unlock the kiosk.
Requiring employees to enter their usernames and passwords may not be feasible or
convenient if the kiosk only has a numeric keypad and no other input devices. Setting up
facial recognition for each employee may not be possible or secure if the kiosk does not
have a camera or biometric sensor. Requiring employees to use their fingerprints may not
be possible or secure if the kiosk does not have a fingerprint scanner or biometric sensor. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0,
Domain 3.3
Question # 8
A manager reports that staff members often forget the passwords to their mobile devicesand applications. Which of the following should the systems administrator do to reduce thenumber of help desk tickets submitted?
A. Enable multifactor authentication. B. Increase the failed log-in threshold. C. Remove complex password requirements. D. Implement a single sign-on with biometrics.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security measure that requires users to provide
multiple pieces of evidence when logging in to an account or system. This can include a
combination of something the user knows (e.g. a password or PIN), something the user
has (e.g. a security token or smartphone) and something the user is (e.g. biometrics such
as a fingerprint or face scan). By enabling MFA, the systems administrator can ensure that
users are required to provide multiple pieces of evidence when logging in, making it more
difficult for unauthorized users to gain access to the system. This can help reduce the
number of help desk tickets submitted due to forgotten passwords.
Question # 9
When a user is in the office, the user's mobile phone loads applications and web browsesvery slowly on a cellular connection. Which of the following is the best way to fix this issue?
A. Connect to the company's Wi-Fi network. B. Change the settings on the phone to connect to a different cellular tower. C. Install a cellular repeater at the office for this user. D. Update all applications on the phone.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best way to fix the issue of slow cellular connection in the office is to connect to the
company’s Wi-Fi network. This will allow the user’s mobile phone to access the internet
through a faster and more reliable wireless network, instead of relying on the cellular
network. Connecting to the Wi-Fi network will also save the user’s data usage and battery
life.
Some of the factors that can affect the cellular connection speed are the distance from the
cell tower, the obstructions between the phone and the tower, the network congestion, the
network technology, and the features of the phone12. In the office, the user may
experience a weak or unstable cellular signal due to the building structure, the location, or
the interference from other devices. Therefore, switching to the Wi-Fi network can improve
the performance of the phone’s applications and web browsing.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives3
CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide4
Factors affecting the speed and quality of internet connection1
Why Is Your Mobile Data So Slow? How to Speed It Up in 10 Steps2
Question # 10
A technician is setting up a new laptop for an employee who travels. Which of the followingis the BEST security practice for this scenario?
A. PIN-based login B. Quarterly password changes C. Hard drive encryption D. A physical laptop lock
Answer: C
Explanation:
Encrypting the laptop's hard drive will ensure that any sensitive data stored on the laptop is
secure, even if the laptop is lost or stolen. Encryption ensures that the data cannot be
accessed by anyone without the correct encryption key. This is an important security
measure for any laptop used by an employee who travels, as it helps to protect the data
stored on the laptop from unauthorized access.
Question # 11
Which of the following items require special e-waste recycling? (Select two).
A. Solid-state drive B. A/C adapter C. Surge protector D. Laptop battery E. CRT monitor F. Power supply
Answer: D,E Explanation: Some electronic items require special e-waste recycling because they
contain hazardous materials that can harm the environment and human health if disposed
of improperly12. Laptop batteries and CRT monitors are examples of such items.
Laptop batteries are usually made of lithium-ion or nickel-metal hydride, which are both
toxic and flammable substances34. If laptop batteries are thrown in the trash, they can
leak, catch fire, or explode, causing pollution and injuries5 . Therefore, laptop batteries
should be recycled at authorized collection centers or through manufacturer take-back
programs .
CRT monitors are old types of display devices that use cathode ray tubes, which are glass
tubes that emit electrons to create images on the screen . CRT monitors contain lead,
mercury, cadmium, and phosphor, which are all harmful metals that can contaminate the
soil, water, and air if dumped in landfills . Therefore, CRT monitors should be recycled at
certified e-waste facilities or through retailer or manufacturer trade-in programs .
2 (220-1102) - Student Access Key5 5: [Why You Should Recycle Your Old Laptop Battery]
: [How to Recycle Laptop Batteries] : [Laptop Battery Recycling] : [How to Recycle Laptop
Batteries] : The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Instructor Guide (Exam 220-1102), page 10-
12 : CompTIA CertMaster Learn for A+ Core 2 (220-1102) - Student Access Key : [What is
a CRT Monitor?] : [How to Recycle CRT Monitors] : [CRT Monitor Recycling] : [How to
Recycle CRT Monitors]
Question # 12
A large organization is researching proprietary software with vendor support for a multiuserenvironment. Which of the following EULA types should be selected?
A. Corporate B. Perpetual C. Open-source D. Personal
Answer: A
Explanation: A corporate EULA is a type of end-user license agreement that is designed
for a large organization that needs to use proprietary software with vendor support for a
multiuser environment. A corporate EULA typically grants the organization a volume
license that allows it to install and use the software on multiple devices or servers, and to
distribute the software to its employees or affiliates. A corporate EULA also usually
provides the organization with technical support, maintenance, updates, and warranty from
the software vendor, as well as some customization options and discounts. A corporate
EULA may also include terms and conditions that specify the rights and obligations of both
parties, such as confidentiality, liability, indemnification, termination, and dispute
resolution12. A corporate EULA is a better option than the other choices because:
A perpetual EULA (B) is a type of end-user license agreement that grants the user
a permanent and irrevocable license to use the software, without any time limit or
expiration date. However, a perpetual EULA does not necessarily include vendor
support, updates, or warranty, and it may not allow the user to install the software
on multiple devices or servers, or to distribute the software to other users. A
perpetual EULA may also be more expensive than a corporate EULA, as it
requires a one-time payment upfront, rather than a recurring subscription fee34.
user a license to use, modify, and redistribute the software, which is publicly
available and free of charge. However, an open-source EULA does not provide
any vendor support, maintenance, updates, or warranty, and it may impose some
restrictions or obligations on the user, such as disclosing the source code,
attributing the original author, or using a compatible license for derivative
works. An open-source EULA may not be suitable for a large organization that
needs proprietary software with vendor support for a multiuser environment56.
A personal EULA (D) is a type of end-user license agreement that grants the user
a license to use the software for personal, non-commercial purposes only. A
personal EULA may limit the number of devices or servers that the user can install
the software on, and prohibit the user from distributing, copying, or reselling the
software to other users. A personal EULA may also provide limited or no vendor
support, maintenance, updates, or warranty, and it may have a fixed or renewable
term. A personal EULA may not meet the needs of a large organization that needs
proprietary software with vendor support for a multiuser environment7 .
References:
1: What is a Corporate License Agreement? - Definition from Techopedia1 2: Corporate
License Agreement - Template - Word & PDF2 3: What is a Perpetual License? - Definition
from Techopedia3 4: Perpetual vs. Subscription Software Licensing: Which Is Best for
You?4 5: What is an Open Source License? - Definition from Techopedia5 6: Open Source
Licenses: Which One Should You Use?6 7: What is a Personal License Agreement? -
Definition from Techopedia7 : Personal License Agreement - Template - Word & PDF
Question # 13
A remote user's smartphone is performing very slowly. The user notices that theperformance improves slightly after rebooting but then reverts back to performing slowly.The user also notices that the phone does not get any faster after connecting to thecompany's corporate guest network. A technician sees that the phone has a large numberof applications installed on it. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. The user is in a poor signal area. B. The user has too many processes running. C. The smartphone has malware on it. D. The smartphone has been jailbroken.
Answer: B
Explanation:
One of the common reasons for a slow smartphone performance is having too many apps
installed and running in the background. These apps consume the device’s memory (RAM)
and CPU resources, which can affect the speed and responsiveness of the phone.
Rebooting the phone can temporarily clear the RAM and stop some background
processes, but they may resume after a while. Connecting to a different network does not affect the performance of the phone, unless the network is congested or has a poor
signal. The user can improve the phone’s performance by uninstalling unused apps,
clearing app caches, and restricting background activities12. Malware can also slow down
a phone, but it is not the most likely cause in this scenario, as the user does not report any
other symptoms of infection, such as pop-ups, battery drain, or data usage spikes3.
Jailbreaking a phone can also affect its performance, but it is not a cause, rather a
consequence, of the user’s actions. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the
manufacturer’s restrictions on a phone, which allows the user to install unauthorized apps,
customize the system, and access root privileges4. However, jailbreaking also exposes the
phone to security risks, voids the warranty, and may cause instability or compatibility
issues5.
References1: Speed up a slow Android device - Android Help - Google Help2: Why your
phone slows down over time and what you can do to stop it | TechRadar3: How to tell if
your phone has a virus | Norton4: What is Jailbreaking? - Definition from Techopedia5:
What is Jailbreaking an iPhone? - Lifewire
Question # 14
A company recently outsourced its night-shift cleaning service. A technician is concernedabout having unsupervised contractors in the building. Which of the following securitymeasures can be used to prevent the computers from being accessed? (Select two).
A. Implementing data-at-rest encryption B. Disabling AutoRun C. Restricting user permissions D. Restricting log-in times E. Enabling a screen lock F. Disabling local administrator accounts
Answer: D,E
Explanation: The correct answers are D. Restricting log-in times and E. Enabling a screen
lock. These are the security measures that can be used to prevent the computers from
being accessed by unsupervised contractors in the building.
Restricting log-in times means setting a policy that allows users to log in only
during certain hours, such as the regular working hours of the company. This will
prevent unauthorized access by contractors who work at night1.
Enabling a screen lock means setting a policy that requires users to enter a
password or a PIN to unlock their screens after a period of inactivity. This will
prevent unauthorized access by contractors who might try to use the computers
A user's system is infected with malware. A technician updates the anti-malware softwareand runs a scan that removes the malware. After the user reboots the system, it once againbecomes infected with malware. Which of the following will MOST likely help topermanently remove the malware?
A. Enabling System Restore B. Educating the user C. Booting into safe mode D. Scheduling a scan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Although updating the anti-malware software and running scans are important steps in
removing malware, they may not be sufficient to permanently remove the malware if the
user keeps engaging in behaviors that leave the system vulnerable, such as downloading
unknown files or visiting malicious websites. Therefore, educating the user on safe
computing practices is the best way to prevent future infections and permanently remove
the malware.
Enabling System Restore, Booting into safe mode, and scheduling a scan are not the most
efficient ways to permanently remove the malware. Enabling System Restore and Booting
into safe mode may help in some cases, but they may not be sufficient to permanently
remove the malware. Scheduling a scan is also important for detecting and removing
malware, but it may not be sufficient to prevent future infections. https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-a-220-1102-examobjectives-(
3-0)
Question # 16
A new service desk is having a difficult time managing the volume of requests. Which of thefollowing is the BEST solution for the department?
A. Implementing a support portal B. Creating a ticketing system C. Commissioning an automated callback system D. Submitting tickets through email
Answer: A
Explanation:
A support portal is an online system that allows customers to access customer service
tools, submit requests and view status updates, as well as access information such as
how-to guides, FAQs, and other self-service resources. This would be the best solution for
the service desk, as it would allow them to easily manage the volume of requests by
allowing customers to submit their own requests and view the status of their requests.
Additionally, the portal would provide customers with self-service resources that can help
them resolve their own issues, reducing the amount of tickets that need to be handled by
the service desk.
Question # 17
Which of the following is MOST likely contained in an EULA?
A. Chain of custody B. Backup of software code C. Personally identifiable information D. Restrictions of use
Answer: D
Question # 18
Which of the following security methods supports the majority of current Wi-Fi-capabledevices without sacrificing security?
A. WPA3 B. MAC filleting C. RADIUS D. TACACS+
Answer: A
Explanation: WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is a wireless security method that supports
the majority of current Wi-Fi-capable devices without sacrificing security. It is backward
compatible with WPA2 devices and offers enhanced encryption and authentication
features. MAC filtering is another wireless security method, but it can be easily bypassed
by spoofing MAC addresses. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) and
TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) are network
authentication protocols, but they are not wireless security methods by themselves. Verified
A technician is building a new desktop machine for a user who will be using the workstationto render 3-D promotional movies. Which of the following is the most importantcomponent?
A. Dedicated GPU B. DDR5 SODIMM C. NVMe disk D. 64-bit CPU
Answer: A
Explanation: A dedicated GPU (graphics processing unit) is the most important
component for rendering 3-D promotional movies, as it can handle the complex
calculations and graphics operations required for creating realistic and high-quality images.
A dedicated GPU has its own memory and processor, which are optimized for graphics
tasks. A dedicated GPU can also support multiple monitors, high resolutions, and
advanced features such as ray tracing12.
References: 1 What Kind of Computer Do You Need for 3D Rendering in
A customer calls the help desk asking for instructions on how to modify desktop wallpaper.Which of the following Windows 10 settings should the technician recommend?
A. Personalization B. Apps C. Updates D. Display
Answer: A
Explanation: Personalization is a Windows 10 setting that allows a user to modify the
desktop wallpaper, as well as other aspects of the appearance and behavior of the
desktop, such as colors, themes, sounds, etc. Apps is a Windows 10 setting that allows a
user to manage the installed applications and their features. Updates is a Windows 10
setting that allows a user to check for and install the latest updates for the OS and other
components. Display is a Windows 10 setting that allows a user to adjust the screen
resolution, brightness, orientation, etc. Verified References:
A technician is reimaging a desktop PC. The technician connects the PC to the networkand powers it on. The technician attempts to boot the computer via the NIC to image thecomputer, but this method does not work. Which of the following is the MOST likely reasonthe computer is unable to boot into the imaging system via the network?
A. The computer's CMOS battery failed. B. The computer's NIC is faulty. C. The PXE boot option has not been enabled D. The Ethernet cable the technician is using to connect the desktop to the network isfaulty.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely reason the computer is unable to boot into the imaging system via the
network is that the PXE boot option has not been enabled. PXE (Preboot Execution
Environment) is an environment that allows computers to boot up over the network, instead
of from a local disk. In order for this to work, the PXE boot option must be enabled in the
computer's BIOS settings. As stated in the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives,
technicians should know how to enable PXE in BIOS to enable network booting on a
computer.
Question # 22
A field technician applied a Group Policy setting to all the workstations in the network. Thissetting forced the workstations to use a specific SNTP server. Users are unable to log innow. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. The SNTP server is offline. B. A user changed the time zone on a local machine. C. The Group Policy setting has disrupted domain authentication on the system, D. The workstations and the authentication server have a system clock difference.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The workstations and the authentication server have a system clock difference. If a Group
Policy setting is applied that forces the workstations to use a specific SNTP server, but the system clock on the workstations and the authentication server are out of sync, then this
can cause authentication issues and users will be unable to log in. In this case, the most
likely cause of the issue is a difference in system clocks and the technician should ensure
that the clocks on the workstations and the authentication server are in sync.
Question # 23
In which of the following scenarios would remote wipe capabilities MOST likely be used?(Select TWO).
A. A new IT policy requires users to set up a lock screen PIN. B. A user is overseas and wants to use a compatible international SIM Card. C. A user left the phone at home and wants to prevent children from gaining access to thephone. D. A user traded in the company phone for a cell carrier upgrade by mistake. E. A user cannot locate the phone after attending a play at a theater. F. A user forgot the phone in a taxi, and the driver called the company to return the device.
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
Remote wipe capabilities are used to erase all data on a mobile device remotely. This can
be useful in situations where a device is lost or stolen, or when sensitive data needs to be
removed from a device. Remote wipe capabilities are most likely to be used in the following
scenarios:
E. A user cannot locate the phone after attending a play at a theater. F. A user forgot the
phone in a taxi, and the driver called the company to return the device1
In scenario E, remote wipe capabilities would be used to prevent unauthorized access to
the device and to protect sensitive data. In scenario F, remote wipe capabilities would be
used to erase all data on the device before it is returned to the user.
Question # 24
A company's assets are scanned annually. Which of the following will most likely help thecompany gain a holistic view of asset cost?
A. Creating a database B. Assigning users to assets C. Inventorying asset tags D. Updating the procurement account owners
Answer: A
Explanation: Creating a database is the most likely option to help the company gain a
holistic view of asset cost. A database can store and organize information about the assets,
such as purchase date, depreciation value, maintenance cost, warranty status, and
replacement cost. Assigning users to assets, inventorying asset tags, and updating the
procurement account owners are important steps for asset management, but they do not
directly provide a holistic view of asset cost. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 18
CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …,
page 101
Question # 25
A technician is troubleshooting a computer with a suspected short in the power supply.Which of the following is the FIRST step the technician should take?
A. Put on an ESD strap B. Disconnect the power before servicing the PC. C. Place the PC on a grounded workbench. D. Place components on an ESD mat.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step a technician should take when troubleshooting a computer with a suspected
short in the power supply is B. Disconnect the power before servicing the PC. This is to
prevent any electrical shock or damage to the components. A power supply can be
dangerous even when unplugged, as capacitors can maintain a line voltage charge for a
long time1. Therefore, it is important to disconnect the power cord and press the power
button to discharge any residual power before opening the case2. The other steps are also
important for safety and proper diagnosis, but they should be done after disconnecting the
power.
Question # 26
A macOS user needs to create another virtual desktop space. Which of the followingapplications will allow the user to accomplish this task?
A. Dock B. Spotlight C. Mission Control D. Launchpad
Answer: C
Explanation: application that will allow a macOS user to create another virtual desktop space is Mission Control Mission Control lets you create additional desktops, called
spaces, to organize the windows of your apps. You can create a space by entering Mission
Control and clicking the Add button in the Spaces bar1. You can also assign apps to
specific spaces and move between them easily1
Question # 27
A technician needs to replace a PC's motherboard. The technician shuts down the PC.Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
A. Turn off the monitor. B. Remove the power cord. C. Remove the PSU. D. Remove the RAM modules.
Answer: B
Explanation: Removing the power cord is the first step to ensure the safety of the
technician and the PC components. This will prevent any electrical shock or damage that
may occur if the PC is still connected to a power source. The technician should also press
the power button to drain any residual power from the capacitors.
Question # 28
Which of the following is the default GUI and file manager in macOS?
A. Disk Utility B. Finder C. Dock D. FileVault
Answer: B
Explanation: Finder is the default GUI and file manager in macOS. Finder is an application
that allows users to access and manage files and folders on their Mac computers. Finder
also provides features such as Quick Look, Spotlight, AirDrop and iCloud Drive. Finder
uses a graphical user interface that consists of icons, menus, toolbars and windows to
display and interact with files and folders. Disk Utility is a utility that allows users to view
and manage disk drives and partitions on their Mac computers. Disk Utility is not a GUI or a file manager but a disk management tool. Dock is a feature that allows users to access and
launch applications on their Mac computers. Dock is not a GUI or a file manager but an
application launcher. FileVault is a feature that allows users to encrypt and protect their
data on their Mac computers. FileVault is not a GUI or a file manager but an encryption
Every time a user tries to open the organization's proprietary application on an Androidtablet, the application immediately closes. Other applications are operating normally. Whichof the following troubleshooting actions would MOST likely resolve the Issue? (SelectTWO).
A. Uninstalling the application B. Gaining root access to the tablet C. Resetting the web browser cache D. Deleting the application cache E. Clearing the application storage F. Disabling mobile device management
Answer: A,E
Explanation: Uninstalling and reinstalling the application can resolve the issue of it
crashing immediately on an Android tablet, as it can fix any corrupted or missing files or
settings. Clearing the application storage can also resolve the issue, as it can free up
space and remove any conflicting data. Gaining root access to the tablet, resetting the web
browser cache, deleting the application cache and disabling mobile device management
are not likely to resolve the issue, as they do not affect how the application runs. Verified
A company recently experienced a security incident in which a USB drive containingmalicious software was able to covertly install malware on a workstation_ Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent this Incident from happening again? (Selecttwo).
A. Install a host-based IDS B. Restrict log-in times. C. Enable a BIOS password D. Update the password complexity E. Disable AutoRun. F. Update the antivirus definitions. G. Restrict user permissions.
Answer: E,F
Explanation: The correct answers are E and F. Disabling AutoRun and updating the
antivirus definitions are two actions that should be taken to prevent the incident from
happening again.
AutoRun is a feature of Windows that automatically executes a predetermined action when
a removable media such as a USB drive is inserted in a computer. For example, AutoRun
can launch or install a new program on the media, or open the file in File Explorer.
However, this feature can also be exploited by malicious software that can run without the
user’s consent or knowledge. Therefore, disabling AutoRun can help prevent accidental
installation of viruses and other malware from USB drives123.
Updating the antivirus definitions is another important action that can help prevent malware
infections from USB drives. Antivirus definitions are files that contain information about the
latest known threats and how to detect and remove them. By updating the antivirus
definitions regularly, you can ensure that your antivirus software can recognize and block
any malicious software that may be on the USB drive before it can harm your computer45.
A host-based IDS is a system that monitors and analyzes the activity on a single computer
or device for any signs of intrusion or malicious behavior. A host-based IDS can help detect
and prevent malware infections from USB drives, but it is not a sufficient action by itself. A
host-based IDS needs to be complemented by other security measures, such as disabling
AutoRun and updating the antivirus definitions6.
Restricting login times, enabling a BIOS password, and updating the password complexity
are all actions that can help improve the security of a computer or device, but they are not
directly related to preventing malware infections from USB drives. These actions can help
prevent unauthorized access to the computer or device, but they do not affect how the
computer or device interacts with the USB drive or its contents.
Restricting user permissions is an action that can help limit the damage that malware can
cause on a computer or device, but it does not prevent the malware from being installed in
the first place. Restricting user permissions means limiting what actions a user can perform on the computer or device, such as installing or deleting programs, modifying system
settings, or accessing certain files or folders. By restricting user permissions, you can
reduce the impact of malware infections by preventing them from affecting other users or
system components7.
Question # 32
A technician needs to manually set an IP address on a computer that is running macOS.Which of the following commands should the technician use?
A. ipconfig B. ifconfig C. arpa D. ping
Answer: B
Explanation:
ifconfig is a command-line utility that allows you to configure network interfaces on macOS
and other Unix-like systems1. To set an IP address using ifconfig, you need to know the
name of the network interface you want to configure (such as en0 or en1), and the IP
address you want to assign (such as 192.168.0.150). You also need to use sudo to run the
command with administrative privileges2. The syntax of the command is:
sudo ifconfig interface address
For example, to set the IP address of en1 to 192.168.0.150, you would type:
sudo ifconfig en1 192.168.0.150
You may also need to specify other parameters such as subnet mask, gateway, or DNS
servers, depending on your network configuration3. The other commands are not directly
related to setting an IP address on macOS. ipconfig is a similar command for Windows
systems4, arpa is a domain name used for reverse DNS lookup, and ping is a command for
testing network connectivity.
Question # 33
Which of the following is the STRONGEST wireless configuration?
A. WPS B. WPA3 C. WEP D. WMN
Answer: B
Explanation:
The strongest wireless configuration is B. WPA3. WPA3 is the most up-to-date wireless
encryption protocol and is the most secure choice. It replaces PSK with SAE, a more
secure way to do the initial key exchange. At the same time, the session key size of WPA3
increases to 128-bit in WPA3-Personal mode and 192-bit in WPA3-Enterprise, which
makes the password harder to crack than the previous Wi-Fi security standards
A technician is moving a Windows workstation from the accounting department to the salesdepartment and needs to update the IP and gateway settings. Which of the followingControl Panel utilities should the technician use?
A. Programs and Features B. Network and Sharing Center C. User Accounts D. Device Manager
Answer: B
Explanation: The Network and Sharing Center is a Control Panel utility that allows users to view and modify network settings, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway,
DNS servers, and network profiles. To change the IP and gateway settings of a Windows
workstation, the technician can follow these steps:
Open the Network and Sharing Center by clicking on the network icon in the
system tray or by searching for it in the Start menu.
Click on Change adapter settings on the left sidebar.
Right-click on the network adapter that is connected to the network and select
Properties.
Double-click on Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) or Internet Protocol Version
6 (TCP/IPv6) depending on the network protocol used.
Select Use the following IP address and enter the desired IP address, subnet
mask, and default gateway for the workstation. Alternatively, select Obtain an IP
address automatically if the network uses DHCP to assign IP addresses
dynamically.
Click OK to save the changes and close the dialog boxes.
References:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide (220-1102), page 2171
How to change the IP address in Windows 10 and Windows 11 (4 ways), section
12
Question # 35
An administrator has received approval for a change request for an upcoming serverdeployment. Which of the following steps should be completed NEXT?
A. Perform a risk analysis. B. Implement the deployment. C. Verify end user acceptance D. Document the lessons learned.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before making any changes to the system, it is important to assess the risks associated
with the change and determine whether it is worth implementing. Risk analysis involves
identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and determining what
steps can be taken to mitigate them. It is important to perform this step before making any
changes, as this allows the administrator to make an informed decision about whether or
not the change should be implemented. Once the risks have been assessed and the
administrator has decided to go ahead with the change, the next step is to implement the
deployment.
Question # 36
A user has been unable to receive emails or browse the internet from a smartphone whiletraveling. However, text messages and phone calls are working without issue. Which of thefollowing should a support technician check FIRST?
A. User account status B. Mobile OS version C. Data plan coverage D. Network traffic outages
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first thing that a support technician should check to resolve the issue of not being able
to receive emails or browse the internet from a smartphone while traveling is the data plan
coverage. The data plan coverage determines how much data and where the user can use
on the smartphone’s cellular network. The data plan coverage may vary depending on the
user’s location, carrier and subscription. The data plan coverage may not include or
support certain areas or countries that the user is traveling to, or may charge extra fees or
limit the speed or amount of data that the user can use. The data plan coverage does not
affect text messages and phone calls, which use different network services and protocols.
User account status is not likely to cause the issue of not being able to receive emails or
browse the internet from a smartphone while traveling, unless the user account has been
suspended or terminated by the carrier or the email provider. Mobile OS version is not
likely to cause the issue of not being able to receive emails or browse the internet from a
smartphone while traveling, unless the mobile OS has a major bug or compatibility problem
with the network or the email app. Network traffic outages may cause the issue of not being
able to receive emails or browse the internet from a smartphone while traveling, but they
are less likely and less common than data plan coverage issues, and they should also
affect text messages and phone calls. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002)
Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.5
Question # 37
Which of the following is an advantage of using WPA2 instead of WPA3?
A. Connection security B. Encryption key length C. Device compatibility D. Offline decryption resistance
Answer: C
Explanation: Device compatibility is an advantage of using WPA2 instead of WPA3.
WPA2 is the previous version of the Wi-Fi Protected Access protocol, which provides
security and encryption for wireless networks. WPA3 is the latest version, which offers
improved security features, such as stronger encryption, enhanced protection against
brute-force attacks, and easier configuration. However, WPA3 is not backward compatible
with older devices that only support WPA2 or earlier protocols. Therefore, using WPA3 may
limit the range of devices that can connect to the wireless network. Connection security,
encryption key length, and offline decryption resistance are advantages of using WPA3
instead of WPA2. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 24
The audio on a user's mobile device is inconsistent when the user uses wirelessheadphones and moves around. Which of the following should a technician perform totroubleshoot the issue?
A. Verify the Wi-Fi connection status. B. Enable the NFC setting on the device. C. Bring the device within Bluetooth range. D. Turn on device tethering.
Answer: C
Explanation: Bringing the device within Bluetooth range is the best way to troubleshoot
the issue of inconsistent audio when using wireless headphones and moving around.
Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate over short
distances, typically up to 10 meters or 33 feet. If the device is too far from the headphones,
the Bluetooth signal may be weak or interrupted, resulting in poor audio quality or loss of
connection.
Question # 40
A technician is investigating an employee's smartphone that has the following symptoms• The device is hot even when it is not in use.•Applications crash, especially when others are launched.• Certain applications, such as GPS, are in portrait mode when they should be in landscapemode.Which of the following can the technician do to MOST likely resolve these issues withminimal impact? (Select TWO).
A. Turn on autorotation B. Activate airplane mode. C. Close unnecessary applications D. Perform a factory reset E. Update the device's operating system F. Reinstall the applications that have crashed.
Answer: A,C
Explanation: The technician can close unnecessary applications and turn on autorotation
to resolve these issues with minimal impact. Autorotation can help the device to switch
between portrait and landscape modes automatically. Closing unnecessary applications
can help to free up the device’s memory and reduce the device’s temperature1
A user attempts to install additional software and receives a UAC prompt. Which of thefollowing is the BEST way to resolve this issue?
A. Add a user account to the local administrator's group. B. Configure Windows Defender Firewall to allow access to all networks. C. Create a Microsoft account. D. Disable the guest account.
Answer: A
Explanation: A user account that belongs to the local administrator’s group has the
permission to install software on a Windows machine. If a user receives a UAC (user
account control) prompt when trying to install software, it means the user does not have
enough privileges and needs to enter an administrator’s password or switch to an
administrator’s account. Adding the user account to the local administrator’s group can
resolve this issue. Configuring Windows Defender Firewall, creating a Microsoft account
and disabling the guest account are not related to this issue. Verified References:
A technician sees a file that is requesting payment to a cryptocurrency address. Which ofthe following should the technician do first?
A. Quarantine the computer. B. Disable System Restore. C. Update the antivirus software definitions. D. Boot to safe mode.
Answer: A
Explanation: Quarantining the computer means isolating it from the network and other
devices to prevent the spread of malware or ransomware. Ransomware is a type of
malware that encrypts the files on a computer and demands payment (usually in
cryptocurrency) to restore them. If a technician sees a file that is requesting payment to a
cryptocurrency address, it is likely that the computer has been infected by ransomware.
Quarantining the computer should be the first step to contain the infection and prevent
further damage. Disabling System Restore, updating the antivirus software definitions, and
booting to safe mode are not steps that should be done before quarantining the computer.
Question # 43
A technician has been tasked with troubleshooting audiovisual issues in a conferenceroom. The meeting presenters are unable to play a video with sound. The following error isreceived: The Audio Driver is not running.Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?
A. compmgmt.msc B. regedit.exe C. explorer.exe D. taskmgt.exe E. gpmc.msc F. services.msc
Answer: F
Explanation: services.msc is a tool that can be used to resolve the issue of “The Audio
Driver is not running” on a Windows machine. It allows a technician to view, start, stop and
configure the services that run on the system, such as the Windows Audio service.
compmgmt.msc, regedit.exe, explorer.exe, taskmgt.exe and gpmc.msc are other tools that
can be used for different purposes on a Windows machine, but they are not related to
Which of the following is the most likely to use NTFS as the native filesystem?
A. macOS B. Linux C. Windows D. Android
Answer: C
Explanation: NTFS stands for New Technology File System, which is a proprietary file
system developed by Microsoft4. NTFS is the default file system for the Windows NT family
of operating systems, which includes Windows 10, Windows Server 2019, and other
versions5. NTFS provides features such as security, encryption, compression, journaling,
and large volume support45. NTFS is not the native file system for other operating
systems, such as macOS, Linux, or Android, although some of them can read or write to
NTFS volumes with third-party drivers or tools
Question # 45
A technician requires graphical remote access to various Windows, Linux, and macOSdesktops on the company LAN. The security administrator asks the technician to utilize asingle software solution that does not require an external internet connection. Which of thefollowing remote access tools is the technician most likely to install?
A. VNC B. RMM C. RDP D. SSH
Answer: A
Explanation:
VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to
access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN
using a graphical user interface. VNC does not require an external internet connection, as it
works over a local network or a VPN. VNC uses a client-server model, where the server
runs on the remote desktop and the client connects to it from another device. VNC can
transmit the keyboard and mouse events from the client to the server, and the screen
updates from the server to the client, enabling the technician to interact with the remote
desktop as if it were local12.
VNC is a better option than the other choices because:
RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) (B) is not a single software solution,
but a category of software solutions that enable IT professionals to remotely
monitor, manage, and troubleshoot multiple devices and networks. RMM software
may include remote access tools, but also other features such as patch
management, backup and recovery, security, reporting, and automation. RMM
software may require an external internet connection, as it often relies on cloudbased
technician to access and control Windows desktops on the company LAN using a
graphical user interface. However, RDP is not compatible with Linux or macOS
desktops, unless they have third-party software installed that can emulate or
translate the RDP protocol. RDP also has some security and performance issues,
such as encryption vulnerabilities, bandwidth consumption, and latency
problems56.
SSH (Secure Shell) (D) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to
access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company
LAN using a command-line interface. SSH does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. SSH uses encryption and
authentication to secure the communication between the client and the
server. However, SSH does not provide a graphical user interface, which may limit
the functionality and usability of the remote desktop7 .
References:
1: What is VNC? - Definition from Techopedia1 2: How VNC Works - RealVNC2 3: What is
Remote Monitoring and Management (RMM)? - Definition from Techopedia3 4: What is
RMM Software? - NinjaRMM4 5: What is Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? - Definition
from Techopedia5 6: Remote Desktop Protocol: What it is and how to secure it - CSO
Online6 7: What is Secure Shell (SSH)? - Definition from Techopedia7 : How to Use SSH
to Access a Remote Server in Linux or Windows - Hostinger Tutorials
Question # 46
An analyst needs GUI access to server software running on a macOS server. Which of thefollowing options provides the BEST way for the analyst to access the macOS server fromthe Windows workstation?
A. RDP through RD Gateway B. Apple Remote Desktop C. SSH access with SSH keys D. VNC with username and password
Answer: B
Explanation:
Apple Remote Desktop is a remote access solution that allows a user to access and control
another macOS computer from their Windows workstation. It provides a graphical user
interface so that the analyst can easily access the server software running on the macOS
server. Apple Remote Desktop also supports file transfers, so the analyst can easily
transfer files between the two computers. Additionally, Apple Remote Desktop supports
encryption, so data is secure during transmission.
Question # 47
A user clicks a link in an email. A warning message in the user's browser states the site'scertificate cannot be verified. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for atechnician to take?
A. Click proceed. B. Report the employee to the human resources department for violating company policy. C. Restore the computer from the last known backup. D. Close the browser window and report the email to IT security.
Answer: D
Explanation: A warning message in the user’s browser stating the site’s certificate cannot
be verified indicates that the site may be insecure, fraudulent, or malicious. This could be a
sign of a phishing attempt, where the sender of the email tries to trick the user into clicking
a link that leads to a fake website that mimics a legitimate one, in order to steal the user’s
personal or financial information. The most appropriate action for a technician to take in this
situation is to close the browser window and report the email to IT security, who can
investigate the source and content of the email, and take the necessary steps to protect the
user and the network from potential harm. Clicking proceed could expose the user to
malware, identity theft, or data breach. Reporting the employee to the human resources
department for violating company policy is unnecessary and harsh, as the user may not
have been aware of the phishing attempt or the company policy. Restoring the computer
from the last known backup is premature and ineffective, as the user may not have been
infected by anything, and the backup may not remove the email or the link from the user’s
inbox
Question # 48
Which of the following would typically require the most computing resources from the hostcomputer?
A. Chrome OS B. Windows C. Android D. macOS E. Linux
Answer: B
Explanation:
Windows is the operating system that typically requires the most computing resources from
the host computer, compared to the other options. Computing resources include hardware
components such as CPU, RAM, disk space, graphics card, and network adapter. The
minimum system requirements for an operating system indicate the minimum amount of
computing resources needed to install and run the operating system on a computer. The
higher the minimum system requirements, the more computing resources the operating
system consumes.
According to the web search results, the minimum system requirements for Windows 10
and Windows 11 are as follows12:
CPU: 1 GHz or faster with two or more cores (Windows 10); 1 GHz or faster with
two or more cores on a compatible 64-bit processor (Windows 11)
RAM: 1 GB for 32-bit or 2 GB for 64-bit (Windows 10); 4 GB (Windows 11)
Disk space: 16 GB for 32-bit or 32 GB for 64-bit (Windows 10); 64 GB (Windows
11)
Graphics card: DirectX 9 or later with WDDM 1.0 driver (Windows 10); DirectX 12
compatible with WDDM 2.0 driver (Windows 11)
Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi (Windows 10); Ethernet or Wi-Fi that supports
5 GHz (Windows 11)
The minimum system requirements for macOS Ventura are as follows:
CPU: Intel Core i3 or higher, or Apple M1 chip
RAM: 4 GB
Disk space: 35.5 GB
Graphics card: Metal-capable
Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi
The minimum system requirements for Chrome OS are as follows:
CPU: Intel Celeron or higher
RAM: 2 GB
Disk space: 16 GB
Graphics card: Integrated
Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi
The minimum system requirements for Android are as follows: CPU: 1 GHz or higher
RAM: 512 MB
Disk space: 8 GB
Graphics card: OpenGL ES 2.0
Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi
The minimum system requirements for Linux vary depending on the distribution, but a
common example is Ubuntu, which has the following minimum system requirements:
CPU: 2 GHz dual core processor or better
RAM: 4 GB
Disk space: 25 GB
Graphics card: 1024 x 768 screen resolution
Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi
Based on the comparison of the minimum system requirements, Windows has the highest
requirements for CPU, RAM, disk space, and graphics card, while Chrome OS and Android
have the lowest requirements. macOS and Linux have moderate requirements, depending
on the hardware and software configuration. Therefore, Windows is the operating system
that typically requires the most computing resources from the host computer.
References:
Windows, macOS, Chrome OS, or Linux: Which Operating System Is Right for
You?1
Comparison of operating systems3
Windows 10 vs 11 Minimum System Requirements: Why Need a New One?2
macOS Monterey - Technical Specifications
Chrome OS - Wikipedia
Android - Wikipedia
Installation/SystemRequirements - Community Help Wiki
Question # 49
A remote user is having issues accessing an online share. Which of the following toolswould MOST likely be used to troubleshoot the Issue?
A. Screen-sharing software B. Secure shell C. Virtual private network D. File transfer software
Answer: A
Explanation: Screen-sharing software is a tool that allows a technician to remotely view
and control a user’s screen over the internet. It can be used to troubleshoot issues with
accessing an online share, as well as other problems that require visual inspection or
guidance. Secure shell (SSH) is a protocol that allows remote access and command
execution on another device, but it does not allow screen-sharing. Virtual private network
(VPN) is a protocol that creates a secure tunnel between two devices over the internet, but
it does not allow remote troubleshooting. File transfer software is a tool that allows
transferring files between two devices over the internet, but it does not allow screensharing.
A technician is tasked with configuring a computer for a visually impaired user. Which ofthe following utilities should the technician use?
A. Device Manager B. System C. Ease of Access Center D. Programs and Features
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Ease of Access Center is a built-in utility in Windows that provides tools and options
for making a computer easier to use for individuals with disabilities, including the visually
impaired. In the Ease of Access Center, the technician can turn on options like high
contrast display, screen magnification, and screen reader software to help the user better
interact with the computer.
Question # 52
An implementation specialist is replacing a legacy system at a vendor site that has onlyone wireless network available. When the specialist connects to Wi-Fi. the specialistrealizes the insecure network has open authentication. The technician needs to secure thevendor's sensitive data. Which of the following should the specialist do FIRST to protect thecompany's data?
A. Manually configure an IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway. B. Connect to the vendor's network using a VPN. C. Change the network location to private. D. Configure MFA on the network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first thing that the specialist should do to protect the company’s data on an insecure
network with open authentication is to connect to the vendor’s network using a VPN. A
VPN stands for Virtual Private Network and is a technology that creates a secure and
encrypted connection over a public or untrusted network. A VPN can protect the company’s
data by preventing eavesdropping, interception or modification of the network traffic by
unauthorized parties. A VPN can also provide access to the company’s internal network
and resources remotely. Manually configuring an IP address, a subnet mask and a default
gateway may not be necessary or possible if the vendor’s network uses DHCP to assign
network configuration parameters automatically. Manually configuring an IP address, a
subnet mask and a default gateway does not protect the company’s data from network
attacks or threats. Changing the network location to private may not be advisable or
effective if the vendor’s network is a public or untrusted network. Changing the network
location to private does not protect the company’s data from network attacks or threats.
Configuring MFA on the network may not be feasible or sufficient if the vendor’s network
has open authentication and does not support or require MFA. Configuring MFA on the
network does not protect the company’s data from network attacks or threats. References:
Which of the following macOS features provides the user with a high-level view of all openwindows?
A. Mission Control B. Finder C. Multiple Desktops D. Spotlight
Answer: A
Explanation: Mission Control is the macOS feature that provides the user with a highlevel
view of all open windows. Mission Control allows the user to see and switch between
multiple desktops, full-screen apps, and windows in a single screen. Mission Control can
be accessed by swiping up with three or four fingers on the trackpad, pressing F3 on the
keyboard, or moving the cursor to a hot corner
Question # 54
Users access files in the department share. When a user creates a new subfolder, only thatuser can access the folder and Its files. Which of the following will MOST likely allow allusers to access the new folders?
A. Assigning share permissions B. Enabling inheritance C. Requiring multifactor authentication D. Removing archive attribute
Answer: B
Explanation: Enabling inheritance is a method that allows new subfolders to inherit the
permissions and settings from their parent folder. If users can access files in the
department share, but not in the new subfolders created by other users, it may indicate that
inheritance is disabled and that each new subfolder has its own permissions and settings
that restrict access to only the creator. Enabling inheritance can help resolve this issue by
allowing all users to access the new subfolders with the same permissions and settings as
the department share. Assigning share permissions, requiring multifactor authentication,
and removing archive attribute are not methods that can most likely allow all users to
access the new folders.
Question # 55
A customer has a USB-only printer attached to a computer. A technician is configuring anarrangement that allows other computers on the network to use the printer. In which of thefollowing locations on the customer's desktop should the technician make thisconfiguration?
A. Printing Preferences/Advanced tab B. Printer Properties/Sharing tab C. Printer Properties/Security tab D. Printer Properties/Ports tab
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Printer Properties/Sharing tab. This is the location
where the technician can enable printer sharing and assign a share name for the USB
printer. This will allow other computers on the network to access the printer by using the
share name or the IP address of the computer that has the printer attached1.
An employee calls the help desk regarding an issue with a laptop PC. After a Windowsupdate, the user can no longer use certain locally attached devices, and a reboot has notfixed the issue. Which of the following should thetechnician perform to fix the issue?
A. Disable the Windows Update service. B. Check for updates. C. Restore hidden updates. D. Rollback updates.
Answer: D
Explanation: The technician should perform a rollback of the Windows update that caused the issue with
the locally attached devices. A rollback is a process of uninstalling an update and restoring
the previous version of the system. This can help to fix any compatibility or performance
issues caused by the update1. To rollback an update, the technician can use the Settings
app, the Control Panel, or the System Restore feature. The technician should also check
for any device driver updates that might be needed after rolling back the update. Disabling
the Windows Update service is not a good practice, as it can prevent the system from
receiving important security and feature updates. Checking for updates might not fix the
issue, as the update that caused the issue might still be installed. Restoring hidden updates
is not relevant, as it only applies to updates that have been hidden by the user to prevent
A payroll workstation has data on it that needs to be readily available and can be recoveredquickly if something is accidentally removed. Which of the following backup methodsshould be used to provide fast data recovery in this situation?
A. Full B. Differential C. Synthetic D. Incremental
Answer: A
Explanation: A full backup does not depend on any previous backups, unlike differential or
incremental backups, which only save the changes made since the last backup. A synthetic
backup is a type of full backup that combines an existing full backup with incremental
backups to create a new full backup, but it still requires multiple backup sets to recover
data. Therefore, a full backup is the most suitable for the payroll workstation that needs to
have its data readily available and recoverable. You can learn more about the differences
between full, differential, incremental, and synthetic backups from this article.
Question # 59
A macOS user is installing a new application. Which of the following system directories isthe software MOST likely to install by default?
A. /etc/services B. /Applications C. /usr/bin D. C:\Program Files
Answer: B
Explanation:
The software is most likely to install by default in the /Applications directory, which is the
standard location for macOS applications. This directory can be accessed from the Finder
sidebar or by choosing Go > Applications from the menu bar. The /Applications directory contains all the applications that are available to all users on the system1. Some
applications might also offer the option to install in the ~/Applications directory, which is a
personal applications folder for a single user2. The /etc/services directory is a system
configuration file that maps service names to port numbers and protocols3. The /usr/bin
directory is a system directory that contains executable binaries for various commands and
utilities4. The C:\Program Files directory is a Windows directory that does not exist on
macOS.
Question # 60
Which of the following is used to ensure users have the appropriate level of access toperform their job functions?
A. Access control list B. Multifactor authentication C. Least privilege D. Mobile device management
Answer: C
Explanation: Least privilege is the principle that is used to ensure users have the
appropriate level of access to perform their job functions. Least privilege means granting
users only the minimum amount of access rights and permissions they need to perform
their tasks, and nothing more. Least privilege reduces the risk of unauthorized access, data
leakage, malware infection, or accidental damage by limiting what users can do on the
system or network. Access control list, multifactor authentication, and mobile device
management are not principles, but rather mechanisms or methods that can implement
least privilege. Access control list is a list that specifies the users or groups that are allowed
or denied access to a resource, such as a file, folder, or printer. Multifactor authentication is
a method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their
identity, such as a password, a token, or a biometric factor. Mobile device management is a
tool that allows managing and securing mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets,
that are used by employees to access corporate data or applications. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 25
[CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide], page 1003
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