Name: CISA
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Answer: B
Explanation: The primary reason for an IS auditor to use data analytics techniques is to reduce detection risk. Detection risk is the risk that an IS auditor will fail to detect material errors or irregularities in the information systems environment. By using data analytics techniques, such as data extraction, analysis, visualization, and reporting, an IS auditor can enhance the audit scope, coverage, efficiency, and effectiveness. Data analytics techniques can help an IS auditor to identify anomalies, patterns, trends, correlations, and outliers in large volumes of data that may indicate potential issues or risks. Technology risk, control risk, and inherent risk are types of audit risk that are not directly affected by the use of data analytics techniques by an IS auditor. References: [ISACA Journal Article: Data Analytics for Auditors]

Answer: D
Explanation: Using analytical tools to produce exception reports from the system and performance monitoring software is the most effective plan of action for a company that purchased and implemented system and performance monitoring software. Exception reports are reports that highlight deviations or anomalies from predefined thresholds or standards. Using analytical tools to produce exception reports can help to reduce the size and complexity of the system and performance monitoring reports, as well as to focus on the most relevant and critical information for review and action. The other options are less effective plans of action, as they may involve unnecessary costs, risks, or efforts. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.21
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 219

Answer: B
Explanation: The business process supported by the system is the most important factor for an IS auditor to understand when planning an audit to assess application controls of a cloud based system. An IS auditor should have a clear understanding of the business objectives, requirements, and risks of the process, as well as the expected outputs and outcomes of the system. This will help the IS auditor to determine the scope, objectives, and criteria of the audit, as well as to identify and evaluate the key application controls that ensure the effectiveness, efficiency, and reliability of the process. The other options are less important factors that may provide additional information or context for the audit, but not its primary focus. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5,Section 5.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 212

Answer: A
Explanation: The IS auditor should be most concerned about the lack of follow-up education for staff members who failed the phishing simulation test. Phishing simulation tests are designed to assess the level of awareness and susceptibility of staff members to phishing attacks, and to provide feedback and training to improve their security behavior. If staff members who failed the test do not receive follow-up education, they will not learn from their mistakes and may continue to fall victim to real phishing attacks, which could compromise the security of the organization.
The other options are less concerning for the IS auditor:
Test results were not communicated to staff members. This is not ideal, as staff members should receive feedback on their performance and learn from the test results. However, this does not necessarily mean that they did not receive any training or education on how to avoid phishing attacks.
Staff members were not notified about the test beforehand. This is a common practice for phishing simulation tests, as it mimics the real-world scenario where staff members do not know when they will receive a phishing email. The purpose of the test is to measure their spontaneous reaction and awareness, not their preparedness or compliance.
Security awareness training was not provided prior to the test. This is not a major concern, as the test can serve as a baseline measurement of the current level of awareness and susceptibility of staff members, and as a starting point for providing tailored training and education based on the test results.

Answer: A
Explanation: Requiring documentation that the finding will be addressed within the new system is the best course of action for a follow-up audit. An IS auditor should obtain evidence that the complex security vulnerability of low risk will be resolved in the new system and that there is a reasonable timeline for its implementation. The other options are not appropriate courses of action, as they may be too costly, time-consuming, or impractical for a low-risk finding. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.5.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers& Explanations Database, Question ID 209

Answer: D
Explanation: The best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment is by reviewing the access rights that have been granted. Access rights are permissions or privileges that define what actions or operations a user can perform on an information system or resource. By reviewing the access rights that have been granted to programmers, an IS auditor can verify whether they have been authorized to modify data in the production environment, which is where live data and applications are stored and executed. The access control system’s log settings are parameters that define what events or activities are recorded by the access control system, which is a system that enforces the access rights and policies of an information system or resource. The access control system’s log settings are not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as they do not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers. How the latest system changes were implemented is a process that describes how software updates or modifications are deployed to the production environment. How the latest system changes were implemented is not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as it does not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers. The access control system’s configuration is a set of rules or parameters that define how the access control system operates and functions. The access control system’s configuration is not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as it does not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers.

Answer: A
Explanation: An application’s audit trail is a record of all actions or events that occur within or affect an application, such as user activities, system operations, data changes, errors, exceptions, etc. An audit trail can provide evidence and accountability for an application’s functionality and performance, and support auditing, monitoring, troubleshooting, and investigation purposes. An IS auditor should ensure that an application’s audit trail has adequate security, which means that it is protected from unauthorized access, modification, deletion, or disclosure. Adequate security can help ensure that an audit trail maintains its integrity, reliability, and availability, and prevents tampering or manipulation by attackers or insiders who want to hide their tracks or evidence of their actions. Logs all database records is a possible feature of an application’s audit trail, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to ensure, as logging all database records may not be necessary or feasible for some applications, and may generate excessive or irrelevant data that can affect the storage or analysis of the audit trail. Is accessible online is a possible feature of an application’s audit trail, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to ensure, as online accessibility may not be required or desirable for some applications, and may introduce security or privacy risks for the audit trail. Does not impact operational efficiency is a desirable outcome of an application’s audit trail, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to ensure, as operational efficiency may not be the primary objective or concern of an application’s audit trail, and may depend on other factors or trade-offs such as storage capacity, performance speed, or data quality.

Answer: C
Explanation: The first action that an IS auditor should take when finding a high-risk vulnerability in a public-facing web server used to process online customer payments is to identify compensating controls. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that provide reasonable assurance of mitigating the risk of exploiting the vulnerability. The IS auditor should assess the effectiveness of the compensating controls and determine whether they reduce the risk to an acceptable level. If not, the IS auditor should recommend remediation actions to address the vulnerability. Documenting the exception in an audit report is an important action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. Reviewing security incident reports is a useful action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not provide assurance of preventing future incidents. Notifying the audit committee is a necessary action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not involve taking any corrective measures. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 295-2961
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 260

Answer: C
Explanation: This is the most helpful method for measuring benefits realization for a new system, because it involves evaluating the actual outcomes and impacts of the system after it has been implemented and used for a certain period of time. A post-implementation review can compare the actual benefits with the expected benefits that were defined in the business case or the benefits realization plan, and identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement. A post-implementation review can also assess the effectiveness, efficiency, and satisfaction of the system’s users, stakeholders, and customers, and provide feedback and recommendations for future enhancements or changes.
The other options are not as helpful as post-implementation review for measuring benefits realization for a new system:
Function point analysis. This is a technique that measures the size and complexity of a software system based on the number and types of functions it provides. Function point analysiscan help estimate the cost, effort, and time required to develop, maintain, or enhance a software system, but it does not measure the actual benefits or value that the system delivers to the organization or its users. Balanced scorecard review. This is a strategic management tool that measures the performance of an organization or a business unit based on four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. A balanced scorecard review can help align the organization’s vision, mission, and goals with its activities and outcomes, but it does not measure the specific benefits or impacts of a new system.
Business impact analysis (BIA). This is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of a disruption or disaster on the organization’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA can help determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for the organization in case of an emergency, but it does not measure the benefits or value of a new system.

Answer: A
Explanation: This should be the first thing that an IS auditor considers when evaluating firewall rules, because it defines the objectives, standards, and guidelines for securing the organization’s network and information assets. The firewall rules should be aligned with the organization’s security policy, and reflect the level of risk and protection required for each type of network traffic, system, or data. The IS auditor should compare the firewall rules with the security policy, and identify any discrepancies, gaps, or conflicts that could compromise the security or performance of the network.
The other options are not as important as the organization’s security policy when evaluating firewall rules:
The number of remote nodes. This is a factor that may affect the complexity and scalability of the firewall rules, but it is not a primary consideration for the IS auditor. Remote nodes are devices or systems that connect to the network from outside locations, such as teleworkers, mobile users, or branch offices. The IS auditor should ensure that the firewall rules provide adequate security and access control for remote nodes, but this depends on the organization’s security policy and business needs.
The firewalls’ default settings. These are the predefined configurations that come with the firewall devices or software, and that determine how they handle network traffic by default. The IS auditor should review the firewalls’ default settings, and verify that they are appropriate and secure for the organization’s network environment. However, the firewalls’ default settings may not match the organization’s security policy or specific requirements, and may need to be customized or overridden by firewall rules. The physical location of the firewalls. This is a factor that may affect the placement and design of the firewall rules, but it is not a critical consideration for the IS auditor.
The physical location of the firewalls refers to where they are installed or deployed in relation to the network topology, such as at the network perimeter, between network segments, or on individual hosts. The IS auditor should ensure that the firewall rules are consistent and coordinated across different locations, but this depends on the organization’s security policy and network architecture.

Answer: B
Explanation: The primary focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that user requirements have been met. User requirements are specifications that define what users need or expect from a system or service, such as functionality, usability, reliability, etc. User requirements are usually gathered and documented at the beginning of a project, and used as a basis for designing, developing, testing, and implementing a system or service. A post-implementation review is an evaluation that assesses whether a system or service meets its objectives and delivers its expected benefits after it has been implemented. The primary focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that user requirements have been met, as this can indicate whether the system or service satisfies the user needs and expectations, provides value and quality to the users, and supports the user goals and tasks. Enterprise architecture (EA) has been complied with is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. EA is a framework that defines how an organization’s business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure are aligned and integrated to support its vision and strategy. EA has been complied with, as this can indicate whether the system or service fits with the organization’s current and future state, and follows the organization’s standards and principles. Acceptance testing has been properly executed is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. Acceptance testing is a process that verifies whether a system or service meets the user requirements and expectations before it is accepted by the users or stakeholders. Acceptance testing has been properly executed, as this can indicate whether the system or service has been tested and validated by the users or stakeholders, and whether any issues or defects have been identified and resolved. User access controls have been adequately designed is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. User access controls are mechanisms that ensure that only authorized users can access or use a system or service, and prevent unauthorized access or use. User access controls have been adequately designed, as this can indicate whether the system or service has appropriate security and privacy measures in place, and whether any risks or threats have been mitigated.

Answer: C
Explanation: The greatest benefit of using a prototyping approach in software development is that it helps to conceptualize and clarify requirements. A prototyping approach is a method of creating a simplified or partial version of a software product to demonstrate its features and functionality. A prototyping approach can help to elicit, validate, and refine the requirements of the software product, as well as to obtain feedback from the users and stakeholders. The other options are not the greatest benefits of using a prototyping approach, but rather possible outcomes or advantages of doing so. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 227

Answer: C
Explanation: Risk assessment is a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, as it helps to identify and prioritize the areas that pose the highest risk to the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk assessment involves analyzing the internal and external factors that affect the organization’s risk profile, evaluating the likelihood and impact of potential events or scenarios, assessing the existing controls and mitigation strategies, and determining the residual risk level. Based on the risk assessment results, the IS auditor can allocate resources and schedule audits accordingly. A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the critical business functions and processes that could be disrupted by a disaster or incident, and estimates the potential impact on the organization’s operations, reputation and finances. A BIA is not a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, but it can be used as an input for risk assessment or as a subject for audit. Fieldwork is the phase of an audit where the IS auditor collects evidence to support the audit objectives and conclusions. Fieldwork is not part of the annual audit planning process, but it is part of each individual audit engagement. A risk control matrix is a tool that maps the risks identified in a risk assessment to the controls that mitigate them. A risk control matrix is not a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, but it can be used as an output of risk assessment or as a tool for audit testing. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.2: Audit Planning.

Answer: D
Explanation: The best way for an organization to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance is to utilize performance monitoring tools to verify service level agreements (SLAs). Performance monitoring tools are software or hardware devices that measure and report the performance of an application or system, such as speed, availability, reliability, etc. Performance monitoring tools can help mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, by allowing the organization to verify whether the third-party provider is meeting the SLAs, which are contracts or agreements that define the expected level and quality of service for an application or system. Performance monitoring tools can also help identify and resolve any performance issues or problems that may arise from the third-party application. Ensuring the third party allocates adequate resources to meet requirements is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and suitability of the resources. Using analytics within the internal audit function is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be timely or relevant depending on the frequency, scope, and quality of the analytics. Conducting a capacity planning exercise is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be accurate or reliable depending on the assumptions, methods, and data used for the capacity planning.

Answer: B
Explanation: Clustering is a technique that allows multiple servers to work together as a single system, providing high availability, load balancing, and fault tolerance. Clustering can limit the potential impact of server failures in a distributed environment, as it can automatically switch the workload to another server in the cluster if one server fails, without interrupting the service. Redundant pathways, failoverpower, and parallel testing are also useful for improving the reliability and availability of servers, but they do not directly address the issue of server failures.

Answer: A
Explanation: Social engineering is a technique that exploits human weaknesses, such as trust, curiosity, or greed, to obtain information or access from a target. An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone is an example of a social engineering attack method, as it involves manipulating the employee into divulging sensitive information that can be used to compromise the network or system. A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access, an intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties, and an unauthorized person attempts to gain access to secure premises by following an authorized person through a secure door are not examples of social engineering attack methods, as they do not involve human interaction or deception. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 361.

Answer: B
Explanation: This is the most effective way for the organization to improve its data classification processes and procedures, because data owners are the ones who are responsible for assigning the appropriate level of classification to the data they create, collect, or manage. Data owners should be aware of the data classification policy, the criteria for each level of classification, and the implications of misclassification. IT security staff can provide tailored training for data owners based on their roles, functions, and types of data they handle. The other options are not as effective as having IT security staff conduct targeted training for data owners:
Use automatic document classification based on content. This is a possible option, but it may not be feasible or accurate for a small organization. Automatic document classification is a process that uses artificial intelligence or machine learning to analyze the content of a document and assign a class label based on predefined rules or models. However, this process may require a lot of resources, expertise, and maintenance, and it may not capture all the nuances and context of the data. The IS auditor should also verify the reliability and validity of the automatic document classification system.
Publish the data classification policy on the corporate web portal. This is a good practice, but it is not enough to improve the data classification situation. Publishing the data classification policy on the corporate web portal can increase the visibility and accessibility of the policy, but it does not ensure that data owners will read, understand, and follow it. The IS auditor should also monitor and enforce the compliance with the policy.
Conduct awareness presentations and seminars for information classification policies. This is a useful measure, but it is not the most effective one. Conducting awareness presentations and seminars can raise the general awareness and knowledge of information classification policies among all employees, but it may not address the specific needs and challenges of data owners. The IS auditor should also provide more in-depth and practical training for data owners.

Answer: B
Explanation: The evidence collected during a digital forensic investigation would not be admissible in court if the logs failed to identify the person handling the evidence. This would violate the chain of custody principle, which requires that the evidence be properly documented, secured, and tracked throughout the investigation process. The chain of custody ensures that the evidence is authentic, reliable, andtrustworthy, and that it has not been tampered with or altered. The person who collected the evidence, whether qualified or not, is not relevant to the admissibility of the evidence, as long as they followed the proper procedures and protocols. The evidence collected by the internal forensics team can be admissible in court, as long as they are independent, objective, and competent. The evidence does not need to be fully backed up using a cloud-based solution prior to the trial, as long as it is preserved and protected from damage or loss. References: ISACA Journal Article: Digital Forensics: Chain of Custody

Answer: C
Explanation: A change log is a record of all changes made to a system or application, including the date, time, description, and approval of each change. A change log can help an IS auditor to trace the source and authorization of a modification to a system’s security settings. A system event correlation report is a tool that analyzes data from multiple sources to identify patterns and anomalies that indicate potential security incidents. A database log is a record of all transactions and activities performed on a database, such as queries, updates, and backups. A security incident and event management (SIEM) report is a tool that collects, analyzes, and reports on data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents.

Answer: A
Explanation: Reviewing the last compile date of production programs is the most efficient way to detect unauthorized changes to production programs, as it can quickly identify any discrepancies between the expected and actual dates of program modification. The last compile date is a timestamp that indicates when a program was last compiled or translated from source code to executable code. Any changes to the source code would require a recompilation, which would update the last compile date. The IS auditor can compare the last compile date of production programs with the authorizedchange requests and reports to verify that only approved changes were implemented. The other options are not as efficient as option A, as they are more time-consuming, labor-intensive or error-prone. Manually comparing code in production programs to controlled copies is a method of verifying that the code in production matches the code in a secure repository or library, but it requires access to both versions of code and a tool or technique to compare them line by line. Periodically running and reviewing test data against production programs is a method of verifying that the programs produce the expected outputs and results, but it requires designing, executing and evaluating test cases for each program. Verifying user management approval of modifications is a method of verifying that the changes to production programs were authorized and documented, but it does not ensure that the changes were implemented correctly or accurately. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.3: Change Management Practices.

Answer: A
Explanation: Root cause is the most important thing for an IS auditor to determine and understand to develop meaningful recommendations for findings. A root cause is the underlying factor or condition that leads to a problem or issue. A finding is a statement that describes a problem or issue identified during an audit. A recommendation is a suggestion or advice that aims to address or resolve a finding. To develop meaningful recommendations for findings, an IS auditor should determine and understand the root cause of each finding, as this can help to identify the most effective and appropriate actions to prevent or correct the problem or issue. The other options are not as important as determining and understanding the root cause, as they do not directly address or resolve the finding. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 434

Answer: A
Explanation: Decreased time for incident resolution is the best indicator that an incident management process is effective. Incident management is a process that aims to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident, which is an unplanned interruption or reduction in quality of an IT service. Decreased time for incident resolution means that the incident management process is able to identify, analyze, respond to, and resolve incidents efficiently and effectively. The other indicatorsdo not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of the incident management process, as they may depend on other factors such as the nature, frequency, and severity of incidents. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 372

Answer: A
Explanation: Requiring written authorization for all payment transactions is the IS auditor’s best recommendation for a compensating control in an environment where segregation of duties (SoD) cannot be enforced in an accounts payable system. SoD is a principle that requires different individuals or functions to perform different tasks or roles in a business process, such as initiating, approving, recording and reconciling transactions. SoD reduces the risk of errors, fraud and misuse of resources by preventing any single person or function from having excessive or conflicting authority or responsibility. A compensating control is a control that mitigates or reduces the risk associated with the absence or weakness of another control. Requiring written authorization for all payment transactions is a compensating control that provides an independent verification and approval of each transaction before it is processed by the accounts payable system. This control can help to detect and prevent unauthorized, duplicate or erroneous payments, and to ensure compliance with policies and procedures. The other options are not as effective as option A, as they do not provide an independent verification or approval of payment transactions. Restricting payment authorization to senior staff members is a control that limits the number of people who can authorize payments, but it does not prevent them from initiating or processing payments themselves, which could violate SoD. Reconciling payment transactions with invoices is a control that verifies that the payments match the invoices, but it does not prevent unauthorized, duplicate or erroneous payments from being processed by the accounts payable system. Reviewing payment transaction history is a control that monitors and analyzes thepayment transactions after they have been processed by the accounts payable system, but it does not prevent unauthorized, duplicate or erroneous payments from occurring in the first place. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.2: Logical Access.

Answer: A
Explanation: The auditor’s next course of action should be to evaluate the appropriateness of the remedial action taken by the auditee. The auditor should assess whether the alternative approach taken by the auditee is effective, efficient, and aligned with the audit objectives and recommendations. The auditor should also consider the impact of the change on the audit scope, criteria, and risk assessment. Conducting a risk analysis incorporating the change, reporting results of the follow-up to the audit committee, and informing senior management of the change in approach are possible subsequent actions that the auditor may take after evaluating the appropriateness of the remedial action
taken. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 1 - Information Systems Auditing Process

Answer: C
Explanation: Team member assignments based on individual competencies is the most important factor to meet the IS audit standard for proficiency. Proficiency is the ability to apply knowledge, skills and experience to perform audit tasks effectively and efficiently. The IS audit standard for proficiency requires that IS auditors must possess the knowledge, skills and discipline to perform audit tasks in accordance with applicable standards, guidelines and procedures. Team member assignments based on individual competencies is a way to ensure that each IS auditor is assigned to audit tasks that match their level of proficiency, and that the audit team as a whole has sufficient and appropriate proficiency to conduct the audit. The other options are not as important as option C, as they do not ensure that the IS auditors have the required proficiency to perform audit tasks. Having a globally recognized audit certification is a way to demonstrate proficiency in IS auditing, but it does not guarantee that the IS auditor has the specific knowledge, skills and experience needed for a particular audit task or system. Technical co-sourcing is a way to supplement the proficiency of the IS audit team by hiring external experts or consultants to perform certain audit tasks or functions, but it does not replace the need for internal IS auditors to have adequate proficiency. Having a supervisor review the new auditors’ work is a way to ensure quality and accuracy of the audit work, but it does not ensure that the new auditors have the necessary proficiency to perform audit tasks independently or
competently. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.4: Audit Skills and Competencies.

Answer: C
Explanation: The metric that would best measure the agility of an organization’s IT function is average time to turn strategic IT objectives into an agreed upon and approved initiative. IT agility is the ability of an IT function to respond quickly and effectively to changing business needs and opportunities. By measuring how fast an IT function can translate strategic IT objectives into actionable initiatives, such as projects or programs, an organization can assess how well its IT function can align with and support its business strategy. Average number of learning and training hours per IT staff member, frequency of security assessments against the most recent standards and guidelines, and percentage of staff with sufficient IT-related skills for the competency required of their roles are metrics that may indicate other aspects of IT performance, such as capability development, security maturity, and skills gap analysis, but they do not directly measure IT agility. References: ISACA Journal Article: Measuring IT Agility

Answer: C
Explanation: IT value analysis has not been completed is a finding from an IT governance review that should be of greatest concern. IT value analysis is a process of measuring and demonstrating the contribution of IT to the organization’s goals and objectives. An IS auditor should be concerned about the lack of IT value analysis, as it may indicate that the IT investments and resources are not aligned with the business needs and expectations, or that the IT performance and outcomes are not monitored and evaluated. The other options are less critical findings that may not have a significant impact on the IT governance. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 218

Answer: D
Explanation: Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles is the best control for ensuring appropriate segregation of duties within an accounts payable department. An IS auditor should verify that the access rights and permissions of the accounts payable staff are based on their roles and responsibilities, and that they are not able to perform incompatible or conflicting functions such as creating, approving, or paying invoices. This will help to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of authority within the accounts payable process. The other options are less effective controls for ensuring segregation of duties, as they may involve audit trails, access restrictions, or user identification. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database,Question ID 223

Answer: C

Answer: B

Explanation: Continuous auditing is a method of performing audit-related activities on a real-time or near real-time basis. Continuous auditing is best suited for real-time transactions, such as online banking, e-commerce, or electronic funds transfer, that require immediate verification and assurance. Low-value transactions are not necessarily suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not pose significant risks or require frequent monitoring. Irregular transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not occur frequently or consistently enough to justify the use of continuous auditing techniques. Manual transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not be captured or processed by automated systems that enable continuous auditing. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 307-3081
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 253

Answer: C
Explanation: Source code for the software must be placed in escrow is the most important requirement to include in the vendor contract to ensure continuity. Source code is the original code of a software program that can be modified or enhanced by programmers. Placing source code in escrow means depositing it with a trusted third party who can release it to the customer under certain conditions, such as vendor bankruptcy, breach of contract, or failure to provide support. This can help to ensure continuity of the software product and its maintenance in case of vendor unavailability or dispute. The other options are less important requirements to include in the vendor contract, as they may involve support availability, disaster recovery plan, or staff training. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.51
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID228

Answer: A
Explanation: The most important task for an IS auditor to perform after the merger of two organizations is to verify that access privileges have been reviewed. Access privileges are the permissions granted to users, groups, or roles to access, modify, or manage IT resources, such as systems, applications, data, or networks. After a merger, the IS auditor should ensure that the access privileges of both organizations are aligned with the new business objectives, policies, and processes, and that there are no conflicts, overlaps, or gaps in the access rights. The IS auditor should also verify that the access privileges are based on the principle of least privilege, which means that users are granted only the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks.
The other options are not as important as verifying that access privileges have been reviewed:
Investigating access rights for expiration dates is a useful task, but it is not the most important one. Expiration dates are the dates when access rights are automatically revoked or suspended after a certain period of time or after a specific event. The IS auditor should check that the expiration dates are set appropriately and enforced consistently, but this is not as critical as reviewing the access privileges themselves.
Updating the continuity plan for critical resources is a necessary task, but it is not the most urgent one. A continuity plan is a document that outlines the procedures and actions to be taken in the event of a disruption or disaster that affects the availability of IT resources. The IS auditor should update the continuity plan to reflect the changes and dependencies introduced by the merger, but this can be done after verifying that the access privileges are secure and compliant.
Updating the security policy is an essential task, but it is not the most immediate one. A security policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for securing IT resources and protecting information assets. The IS auditor should update the security policy to incorporate the best practices and standards of both organizations, and to address any new risks or threats posed by the merger, but this can be done after verifying that the access privileges are aligned with the policy.

Answer: A

Answer: A
Explanation: Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. Penetration testing typically consists of four phases: planning, discovery, attacks, and reporting. In the discovery phase, penetration testers gather information about the target system or network, such as host detection, domain name system (DNS) interrogation, port scanning, service identification, operating system fingerprinting, vulnerability scanning, etc. This information can help to identify potential entry points, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities that can be exploited in the subsequent attack phase. Host detection and DNS interrogation are techniques that can be used in the discovery phase to determine the active hosts and their IP addresses and hostnames on the target network. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 368.

Answer: C
Explanation: An IS auditor is conducting a review of a data center. An observation that could indicate an access control issue is muddy footprints directly inside the emergency exit. Access control is a process that ensures that only authorized entities or individuals can access or use an information system or resource, and prevents unauthorized access or use. Access control can be implemented using various methods or mechanisms, such as physical, logical, administrative, etc. Muddy footprints directly inside the emergency exit could indicate an access control issue, as they could suggest that someone has entered the data center through the emergency exit without proper authorization or authentication, and potentially compromised the security or integrity of the data center. Security cameras deployed outside main entrance is not an observation that could indicate an access control issue, but rather a control that could enhance access control, as security cameras are devices that capture and record video footage of the surroundings, and can help monitor and deter unauthorized access or activity. Antistatic mats deployed at the computer room entrance is not an observation that could indicate an access control issue, but rather a control that could prevent static electricity damage, as antistatic mats are devices that dissipate or reduce static charges from people or objects, and can help protect electronic equipment from electrostatic discharge (ESD). Fencing around facility is two meters high is not an observation that could indicate an access control issue, but rather a control that could improve physical security, as fencing is a barrier that encloses or surrounds an area, and can help prevent unauthorized entry or intrusion.

Answer: C

Explanation: Understanding the specific agile methodology that will be followed is the first step that an IS auditor should do to ensure the effectiveness of the project audit. An IS auditor should familiarize themselves with the agile approach, principles, practices, and tools that will be used by the project team, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the project stakeholders. This will help the IS auditor to identify and assess the relevant risks and controls for the project audit. The other options are not the first steps that an IS auditor should do, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on the specific agile methodology. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.21
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 211

Answer: D
Explanation: The most effective way to ensure the integrity of data transmitted over a network is to use a message digest. A message digest is a cryptographic function that generates a unique and fixed-length value (also known as a hash or checksum) from any input data. The message digest can be used to verify that the data has not been altered or corrupted during transmission by comparing it with the message digest generated at the destination. Message encryption is a method of protecting the confidentiality of data transmitted over a network by transforming it into an unreadable format using a secret key. Message encryption does not ensure the integrity of data, as it does not prevent or detect unauthorized modifications. Certificate authority (CA) is an entity that issues and manages digital certificates that bind public keys to identities. CA does not ensure the integrity of data, as it does not prevent or detect unauthorized modifications. Steganography is a technique of hiding data within other data, such as images or audio files. Steganography does not ensure the integrity of data, as it does not prevent or detect unauthorized modifications. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 383-3841
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 258

Answer: C
Explanation: Including the data warehouse in the impact analysis for any changes in the source system is the best way to prevent data quality issues caused by changes from a source system. A data warehouse is a centralized repository of integrated data from one or more source systems. An impact analysis is a technique of assessing the potential effects and consequences of a change on the existing system or environment. Including the data warehouse in the impact analysis can help to identify and mitigate any data quality issues that may arise from changes in the source system, such as data inconsistency, incompleteness, or inaccuracy. The other options are less effective ways to prevent data quality issues, as they may involve data quality alerts, approval for changes, or access restrictions. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.41
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 226

Answer: B
Explanation: To ensure that management concerns are addressed, internal audit should recommend that the data quality team review the data reported to the regulatory body first. This is because this data set is the most relevant and critical to the issue that triggered the enhancement of the data quality program. The data reported to the regulatory body should be accurate, complete, consistent, and timely, as any discrepancies could result in fines, penalties, or reputational damage for the organization.Data with customer personal information is important for data quality, but it is not directly related to the regulatory reporting issue. Data supporting financial statements is important for data quality, but it may not be the same as the data reported to the regulatory body. Data impacting business objectives is important for data quality, but it may not be as urgent or sensitive as the data reported to the regulatory body. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 404-4051
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 262

Answer: D
Explanation: The best approach for management in developing a test plan is to use processing parameters that are simulated by production entities and customers. This is because using realistic data and scenarios can help to evaluate the functionality, performance, reliability, and security of the new system under actual operating conditions and expectations. Using processing parameters that are randomly selected by a test generator, provided by the vendor of the application, or randomly selected by the user may not be sufficient or representative of the production environment and may not reveal all the potential issues or defects of the new system. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 266.

Answer: B
Explanation: The audit charter is a document that defines the purpose, scope, authority, and responsibility of an IT audit organization. The audit charter should specify roles and responsibilities within an IT audit organization, such as who is accountable for approving the audit plan, who is responsible for conducting the audits, who is authorized to access the audit evidence, and who is accountable for reporting the audit results. The organizational chart, the engagement letter, and the annual audit plan are also important documents for an IT audit organization, but they do not specify roles and responsibilities as clearly and comprehensively as the audit charter.

Answer: C
Explanation: Access rights provisioned according to scheme would best help to support an auditor’s conclusion about the effectiveness of an implemented data classification program. This would indicate that the data classification program has been properly implemented and enforced, and that the data is protected according to its sensitivity and value. The other options are not sufficient to demonstrate the effectiveness of a data classification program, as they do not show how the data is actually accessed and used by authorized users. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 2042

Answer: C
Explanation: Identifying required IT skill sets that support key business processes is the first step to enable the alignment of IT staff development plans with IT strategy. An IT strategy is a plan that defines how IT will support the organization’s goals and objectives. Identifying required IT skill sets means determining the knowledge, abilities, and competencies that IT staff need to perform their roles and responsibilities effectively and efficiently. This can help to align IT staff development plans with IT strategy, as well as to identify and address any skill gaps or needs within the IT workforce. The other options are not the first steps to enable alignment, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on the required IT skill sets. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID 229

Answer: B
Explanation: The observation that should be of most concern to the auditor when reviewing security controls related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents is that employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration tools. Collaboration tools are software or hardware devices that enable users to communicate, cooperate, and coordinate with each other on a common task or project. Collaboration tools can facilitate information sharing and knowledge exchange among users, but they can also pose security risks if not properly controlled or managed. Employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration tools, as this can compromise the security and confidentiality of intellectual property and patents, which are valuable and sensitive assets of the organization. Employees may share files with unauthorized or untrusted users who may misuse or disclose the intellectual property and patents, either intentionally or unintentionally. This can cause harm or damage to the organization, such as loss of competitive advantage, reputation, revenue, or legal rights. Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property and patents is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. Training is anactivity that educates and instructs users on how to use collaboration tools effectively and securely, such as how to access, share, store, and protect information using collaboration tools. Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property and patents, as this can affect the awareness and competence of users on collaboration tools, and increase the likelihood of errors or mistakes that may compromise the security or quality of information. However, this observation may not be directly related to collaboration tools, as it may apply to any information system or resource used by the department. Logging and monitoring for content filtering is not enabled is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. Logging and monitoring are processes that record and analyze the events or activities that occur on an information system or network, such as user actions, system operations, data changes, errors, alerts, etc. Content filtering is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of information based on predefined criteria or rules, such as keywords, categories, sources, etc. Logging and monitoring for content filtering is not enabled, as this can affect the auditability, accountability, and visibility of collaboration tools, and prevent detection or investigation of security incidents or violations related to information sharing using collaboration tools. However, this observation may not be specific to collaboration tools, as it may affect any information system or network that uses content filtering. The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an Internet browser is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. A hosted collaboration tool is a type of cloud-based service that provides collaboration functionality over the Internet without requiring installation or maintenance on local devices. An Internet browser is a software application that enables users to access and interact with web-based content or services. The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an Internet browser, as this can affect the availability and reliability of collaboration tools, and introduce security or privacy risks for information sharing using collaboration tools. However, this observation may not be unique to collaboration tools, as it may apply to any cloud-based service that uses an Internet browser.

Answer: C
Explanation: The best source of information for an IS auditor to use when determining whether an organization’s information security policy is adequate is the risk assessment results. The risk assessment results provide the auditor with an overview of the organization’s risk profile, including the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. The auditor can use the risk assessment results to compare the organization’s information security policy with the risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk treatment strategies of the organization. The auditor can also use the risk assessment results to evaluate if the information security policy is aligned with the organization’s objectives, requirements, and regulations. Some of the web sources that support this answer are:

Performance Measurement Guide for Information Security
ISO 27001 Annex A.5 - Information Security Policies
[CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor – Question0551]

Answer: B
Explanation: Upon completion of audit work, an IS auditor should distribute a summary of general findings to the members of the auditing team. This is to ensure that the audit team members are aware of the audit results, have an opportunity to provide feedback, and can agree on the audit conclusions and recommendations. Providing a report to senior management prior to discussion with the auditee, providing a report to the auditee stating the initial findings, and reviewing the working papers with the auditee are not appropriate actions for an IS auditor to take upon completion of audit work, as they may compromise the audit independence, objectivity, and quality. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 221

Answer: A
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated is that policies and procedures might not reflect current practices. Policies are documents that define the goals, objectives, and guidelines for an organization’s information systems and resources. Procedures are documents that describe the steps, tasks, or activities for implementing or executing policies. Policies and procedures should be regularly reviewed and updated to ensure that they are relevant, accurate, consistent, and effective for the organization’s information systems and resources. Policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated might not reflect current practices, as they might be outdated, obsolete, or incompatible with the current state or needs of the organization’s information systems and resources. This can cause confusion, inconsistency, inefficiency, or noncompliance among users or stakeholders who rely on policies and procedures for guidance or direction. Policies and procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated, but it is not the greatest one. Policies and procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes, as they might be unaware of or unresponsive to the introduction or modification of information systems or resources within the organization. This can cause gaps, overlaps, or conflicts among policies and procedures that affect different information systems or resources.

Answer: C
Explanation: The most critical finding when reviewing an organization’s information security management is no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. Periodic assessments are essential for ensuring that the organization’s information security policies, procedures, standards, and controls are aligned with the current and emerging risks and threats that may affect its information assets. Without periodic assessments, the organization may not be aware of its actual security posture, gaps, or weaknesses, and may not be able to take appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent potential security incidents. No dedicated security officer, no official charter for the information security management system, and no employee awareness training and education program are also findings that may indicate some deficiencies in the organization’s information security management, but they are not as critical as no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 343.

Answer: C
Explanation: The chain of custody has not been documented is a finding that should be of greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing a forensic analysis process of an organization that has suffered a cyber attack. The chain of custody is a record of who handled, accessed, or modified the evidence during a forensic investigation. Documenting the chain of custody is essential to preserve the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in a court of law. The other options are less concerning findings that may not affect the validity or reliability of the forensic analysis process. References:

CISAReview Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.51
CISA Review Questions, Answers &Explanations Database, Question ID 220

Answer: A
Explanation: The first thing that the audit manager should do when faced with a situation where only 60% of the audit has been completed and the due date is approaching is to determine where delays have occurred. This can help the audit manager to identify and analyze the root causes of the delays, such as unexpected issues, scope changes, resource constraints, communication problems, etc., and evaluate their impact on the audit objectives, scope, quality, and timeline. Based on this analysis, the audit manager can then decide on the best course of action to address the delays and complete the audit successfully. Assigning additional resources to supplement the audit is a possible option forresolving delays in an audit project, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and suitability of the additional resources. Escalating to the audit committee is a possible option for communicating delays in an audit project and seeking guidance or support from senior management, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be necessary or appropriate depending on the severity and urgency of the delays. Extending the audit deadline is a possible option for accommodating delays in an audit project and ensuring sufficient time for completing the audit tasks and activities, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be possible or desirable depending on the contractual obligations, stakeholder expectations, and regulatory requirements.

Answer: C
Explanation: The major advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture is that desktop application software will never have to be upgraded. A thin client architecture is a type of client-server architecture that uses lightweight or minimal devices (thin clients) as clients that connect to a central server that provides most of the processing and storage functions. A thin client architecture can offer several benefits over a traditional desktop PC architecture, such as lower cost, higher security, easier maintenance, etc. One of these benefits is that desktop application software will never have to be upgraded on thin clients, as all the applications are installed and updated on the server, and accessed by thin clients through a network connection. This can save time and money for installing and upgrading software on individual devices, and ensure consistency and compatibility among different devices. The security of the desktop PC is enhanced is a possible advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client architecture can enhance the security of desktop PCs by reducing the exposure orvulnerability of data and applications on individual devices, and centralizing the security management and control on the server. However, this advantage may depend on other factors such as network security, server security, user authentication, etc. Administrative security can be provided for the client is a possible advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client architecture can provide administrative security for clients by allowing administrators to configure and manage client devices remotely from the server, and enforce policies and restrictions on client access or usage. However, this advantage may depend on other factors such as network reliability, server availability, user compliance, etc. System administration can be better managed is a possible advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client architecture can improve system administration by simplifying and streamlining the tasks and activities involved in maintaining and supporting client devices, such as backup, recovery, troubleshooting, etc., and consolidating them on the server. However, this advantage may depend on other factors such as network bandwidth, server capacity, user satisfaction

Answer: C
Explanation: Ensuring access rules agree with policies is an information systems security officer’s primary responsibility for business process applications. An information systems security officer should verifythat the access controls implemented for the business process applications are consistent with the organization’s security policy and objectives. The other options are not the primary responsibility of an information systems security officer, but rather the tasks of an application owner, a senior management, or a business analyst. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.3.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 208

Answer: C
Explanation: Capacity management is a process that ensures that the IT resources of an organization are sufficient to meet the current and future demands of the business. Capacity management enables organizations to identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded, by monitoring and analyzing the performance, utilization, and availability of the IT components, such as servers, networks, storage, applications, etc., and identifying any bottlenecks, gaps, or risks that may affect the service level agreements (SLAs) or quality of service (QoS). Capacity management also helps organizations to plan and optimize the use of IT resources, by forecasting the future demand and growth of the business, and aligning the IT capacity with the business needs and objectives. Forecasting technology trends is a possible outcome of capacity management, but it is not its main purpose. Establishing the capacity of network communication links is a part of capacity management, but it is not its main goal. Determining business transaction volumes is an input for capacity management, but it is not its main objective.

Answer: D
Explanation: The best way to prevent accepting bad data from a third-party service provider is to implement business rules to reject invalid data. Business rules are logical statements that define the data quality requirements and standards for the organization. By implementing business rules, the organization can ensure that only data that meets the predefined criteria is accepted into the enterprise data warehouse. Obtaining error codes indicating failed data feeds, purchasing data cleansing tools from a reputable vendor, and appointing data quality champions across the organization are useful measures to improve data quality, but they do not prevent accepting bad data in the first place. References: ISACA Journal Article: Data Quality Management

Answer: B
Explanation: The most important determining factor when establishing appropriate timeframes for follow up activities related to audit findings is the remediation dates included in management responses. The IS auditor should ensure that the follow-up activities are aligned with the agreed-upon action plans and deadlines that management has committed to in response to the audit findings. The follow-up activities should verify that management has implemented the corrective actions effectively and in a timely manner, and that the audit findings have been resolved or mitigated.
The other options are less important factors for establishing timeframes for follow-up activities: Availability of IS audit resources. This is a practical factor that may affect the scheduling and execution of follow-up activities, but it should not override the priority and urgency of verifying management’s corrective actions.
Peak activity periods for the business. This is a factor that may affect the availability and cooperation of auditees during follow-up activities, but it should not delay or postpone the verification of management’s corrective actions beyond reasonable limits.
Complexity of business processes identified in the audit. This is a factor that may affect the scope and depth of follow-up activities, but it should not affect the timeframe for verifying management’s corrective actions.

Answer: D
Explanation: The organizational policies and procedures are the first source of guidance for an IS auditor when planning a customer data privacy audit. They provide the framework and objectives for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, customer agreements and data classification. The IS auditor should review them first to understand the scope, roles and responsibilities, standards and controls related to customer data privacy in the organization. The other options are also important, but they are secondary sources of information thatshould be reviewed after the organizational policies and procedures. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 2: Governance and Management of Information Technology, Section 2.5: Privacy Principles and Policies.

Answer: B
Explanation: The IS auditor’s next step after determining that many terminated users’ accounts were not disabled is to perform a review of terminated users’ account activity. This means that the IS auditor should check whether any of the terminated users’ accounts were accessed or used after their termination date, which could indicate unauthorized or fraudulent activity. The IS auditor should also assess the impact and risk of such activity on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and data. The other options are not as appropriate as performing a review of terminated users’ account activity, as they do not provide sufficient evidence or assurance of the extent and effect of the problem. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 240

Answer: D
Explanation: The most important reason to classify a disaster recovery plan (DRP) as confidential is to reduce the risk of data leakage that could lead to an attack. A DRP contains sensitive information about the organization’s IT infrastructure, systems, processes, and procedures for recovering from a disaster. If this information falls into the wrong hands, it could be exploited by malicious actors to launch targeted attacks, sabotage recovery efforts, or extort ransom. Therefore, a DRP should be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction.
The other options are not as important as reducing the risk of data leakage that could lead to an attack:
Ensuring compliance with the data classification policy is a good practice, but it is not a sufficient reason to classify a DRP as confidential. The data classification policy should reflect the level of risk and impact associated with each type of data, and a DRP should be classified as confidential based on its potential harm if compromised.
Protecting the plan from unauthorized alteration is a valid concern, but it is not a primary reason to classify a DRP as confidential. A DRP should be protected from unauthorized alteration by implementing access controls, audit trails, version control, and change management processes. Classifying a DRP as confidential may deter some unauthorized alterations, but it does not prevent them. Complying with business continuity best practice is a desirable goal, but it is not a compelling reason to classify a DRP as confidential. Business continuity best practice may recommend classifying a DRP as confidential, but it does not mandate it. The decision to classify a DRP as confidential should be based on a risk assessment and a cost-benefit analysis.

Answer: D
Explanation: Mapping IT processes to roles is an activity that provides an IS auditor with the most insight regarding potential single person dependencies that might exist within the organization. Single person dependencies occur when only one person has the knowledge, skills, or access rights to perform a critical IT function. Mapping IT processes to roles can help to identify such dependencies and assess their impact on the continuity and security of IT operations. The other activities do not provide as much insight into single person dependencies, as they do not show the relationship between IT processes and roles. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 94

Answer: C
Explanation: Recent third-party IS audit reports would be most helpful in determining the effectiveness of the IT governance framework of the target company. IT governance is a framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for aligning IT strategy with business strategy. A third-party IS audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s IT governance framework by an external auditor. Recent third-party IS audit reports can provide reliable and unbiased evidence of the strengths, weaknesses, and maturity of the IT governance framework of the target company. The other options are not as helpful as recent third-party IS audit reports, as they may not be as comprehensive, accurate, or current as external audits. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 94

Answer: C
Explanation: The most helpful thing to ensure the integrity of the system throughout the change when moving from one database management system (DBMS) to another is preserving the same data structure. A DBMS is a software system that manages and manipulates data stored in a database, such as creating, updating, querying, deleting, etc. A database is a collection of structured or organized data that can be accessed or manipulated by a DBMS. A data structure is a way of organizing or arranging data in a database, such as tables, columns, rows, keys, indexes, etc. Preserving the same data structure when moving from one DBMS to another can help ensure the integrity of the system throughout the change, by maintaining the consistency and accuracy of data in the database, and avoiding any errors or issues that may arise from incompatible or inconsistent data structures between different DBMSs. Preserving the same data classifications is a possible thing to ensure the integrity of the system throughout the change when moving from one DBMS to another, but it is not the most helpful one. Data classifications are categories or labels that define the level of sensitivity or importance of data in a database, such as public, confidential, secret, etc. Data classifications can help protect the security and privacy of data in the database by applying appropriate controls or restrictions on data access or use based on their classifications. Preserving the same data classifications when moving from one DBMS to another can help ensure the integrity of the system throughout the change by preventing unauthorized or inappropriate access or use of data in the database. However, this may not be directly related to the DBMS change, as it may apply to any data migration or transfer process. Preserving the same data inputs is a possible thing to ensure the integrity of the system throughout the change when moving from one DBMS to another, but it is not the most helpful one. Data inputs are sources or methods that provide data to a database, such as user inputs, sensors, files, etc. Data inputs can affect the quality and validity of data in the database by introducing errors or inconsistencies in data entry or collection. Preserving the same data inputs when moving from one DBMS to another can help ensure the integrity of the system throughout the change by reducing errors or inconsistencies in data input or collection.

Answer: B
Explanation: Ongoing monitoring of the audit activities is the most important activity to include as part of the quality assurance (QA) program requirements for an internal audit department. An IS auditor should perform regular reviews and evaluations of the audit processes, methods, standards, and outcomes to ensure that they comply with the QA program objectives and criteria. This will help to maintain and improve the quality and consistency of the audit services and deliverables. The other options are less important activities to include as part of the QA program requirements, as they may involve long-term resource planning, user satisfaction reports, or feedback from internal audit staff. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section2.61
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 224

Answer: C
Explanation: The most important factor for the organization to ensure when reducing the retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions is that the retention period complies with data owner responsibilities. Data owners are accountable for defining the retention and disposal requirements for the data under their custody, based on business, legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations. The policy should reflect the data owner’s decisions and obtain their approval. The policy should also include a risk-based approach, but this is not as important as complying with data owner responsibilities. The retention period should allow for review during the year-end audit, but this may not be necessary for low-value transactions that have minimal impact on financial reporting. The total transaction amount may have some impact on financial reporting, but this is not a direct consequence of reducing the retention period. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 414-4151
CISA Review Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID: 255

Answer: B
Explanation: The greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server is data confidentiality. Data confidentiality is the property that ensures that data are accessible only to authorized entities or individuals, and protected from unauthorized disclosure or exposure. Storing customer data on a web server poses a high risk to data confidentiality, as web servers are exposed to the internet and may be vulnerable to various types of attacks or breaches that can compromise the security and privacy of customer data, such as hacking, phishing, malware, denial of service (DoS), etc. Customer data may contain sensitive or personal information that can cause harm or damage to customers or the organization if disclosed or exposed, such as identity theft, fraud, reputation loss, legal liability, etc. Data availability is the property that ensures that data are accessible and usable by authorized entities or individuals when needed. Data availability is a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as web servers may experience failures or disruptions that can affect the accessibility and usability of customer data, such as hardware faults, network issues, power outages, etc. However, data availability is not the greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as it does not affect the security and privacy of customer data. Data integrity is the property that ensures that data are accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Data integrity is a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as web servers may be subject to attacks or errors that can affect the accuracy and consistency of customer data, such as injection attacks, tampering, replication issues, etc. However, data integrity is not the greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as it does not affect the security and privacy of customer data. Data redundancy is the condition of having duplicate or unnecessary data in a database or system. Data redundancy is not a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, but rather a result of poor database design or management.

Answer: B
Explanation: The most assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system can be obtained by running historical transactions through the new system. Historical transactions are transactions that have been processed and recorded by the old system in the past. Running historical transactions through the new system can provide the most assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, bycomparing the results and outputs of the new system with those of the old system, and verifying whether they match or differ. This can help identify and resolve any errors or issues that may arise from the new system, such as data conversion, functionality, compatibility, etc. Comparing code between old and new systems is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. Code is a set of instructions or commands that define how a system operates or functions. Comparing code between old and new systems can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by checking whether the logic, algorithms, or functions of the new system are consistent or equivalent with those of the old system. However, this may not be sufficient or reliable, as code may not reflect the actual performance or outcomes of the system, and may not detect any errors or issues that may occur at the data or user level. Reviewing quality assurance (QA) procedures is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. QA procedures are steps or activities that ensure that a system meets its quality standards and requirements, such as testing, verification, validation, etc. Reviewing QA procedures can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by evaluating whether the new system has been properly tested and verified before implementation. However, this may not be adequate or accurate, as QA procedures may not cover all aspects or scenarios of loan application processing, and may not reveal any errors or issues that may arise after implementation. Loading balance and transaction data to the new system is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. Balance and transaction data are data that reflect the status and history of loan applications in a system, such as amounts, dates, payments, etc. Loading balance and transaction data to the new system can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by transferring data from the old system to the new system and ensuring that they are consistent and correct. However, this may not be enough or valid, as balance and transaction data may not represent all aspects or features of loan application processing, and may not indicate any errors or issues that may arise

Answer: A
Explanation: Ensuring that the facts presented in the report are correct is the most important thing for an IS auditor to do during an exit meeting with an auditee. An IS auditor should confirm that the audit findings and observations are accurate, complete, and supported by sufficient evidence, as well as that the auditee understands and agrees with them. This will help to avoid any misunderstandings or disputes later on, as well as to enhance the credibility and quality of the audit report. The other options are less important things for an IS auditor to do during an exit meeting, as they may involve communicating the recommendations to senior management, specifying implementation dates for the recommendations, or requesting input in determining corrective action. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.5.21
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 222

Answer: B
Explanation: This must be in place before an IS auditor initiates audit follow-up activities, because it indicates that management has acknowledged and accepted the audit findings and recommendations, and has agreed to take corrective actions within a specified timeframe. Audit follow-up activities are the processes and procedures that the IS auditor performs to verify that management has implemented the agreed-upon actions effectively and in a timely manner, and that the audit findings have been resolved or mitigated.
The other options are not required to be in place before an IS auditor initiates audit follow up activities:
Available resources for the activities included in the action plan. This is a factor that may affect the feasibility and success of the action plan, but it is not a prerequisite for the audit follow-up activities. The IS auditor should assess the availability and adequacy of the resources for the action plan during the audit planning and execution phases, and provide recommendations accordingly. However, the IS auditor does not need to wait for the resources to be available before initiating the audit follow-up activities.
A heat map with the gaps and recommendations displayed in terms of risk. This is a tool that may help the IS auditor prioritize and communicate the gaps and recommendations, but it is not a requirement for the audit follow-up activities. A heat map is a graphical representation of data that uses colors to indicate the level of risk or impact of each gap or recommendation. The IS auditor may use a heat map to support the audit report or presentation, but it does not replace the need for a management response with a committed implementation date.
Supporting evidence for the gaps and recommendations mentioned in the audit report. This is a component that should be included in the audit report, but it is not a condition for the audit follow-up activities. Supporting evidence is the information or data that supports or substantiates the audit findings and recommendations. The IS auditor should collect and document sufficient, reliable, relevant, and useful evidence during the audit execution phase, and present it in the audit report. However, the IS auditor does not need to have supporting evidence in place before initiating the audit follow-up activities.

Answer: D
Explanation: Clustering is a technique that groups multiple servers or nodes together to act as one system, providing high availability, scalability, and load balancing for applications or services. Clustering can improve system resiliency, which is the ability of a system to withstand or recover from failures or disruptions without compromising its functionality or performance. Clustering can achieve this by providing redundancy and fault tolerance for critical components or processes, enabling automatic failover and recovery in case of node failures, distributing workload among multiple nodes to avoid overloading or bottlenecks, and allowing dynamic addition or removal of nodes to meet changingdemand or capacity needs. Clustering may also decrease system response time by improving performance and efficiency through load balancing and parallel processing, but this is not its primary purpose. Clustering may facilitate faster backups by enabling concurrent backup operations across multiple nodes, but this is not its main benefit. Clustering may improve the recovery time objective (RTO), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, by reducing the downtime and data loss caused by failures, but this is not the best reason for using clustering, as there may be other factors that affect the RTO, such as backup frequency, recovery procedures, and testing methods.

Answer: C
Explanation: Control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that enables business managers and staff to assess and improve the effectiveness of their own controls and risk management processes. CSA can best enable the timely identification of risk exposure, as it allows for continuous monitoring and reporting of risks by those who are closest to the business processes and activities. External audit review, internal audit review, and stress testing are also useful methods for identifying risk exposure, but they are not as timely as CSA, as they are performed periodically or on demand by external or internal parties who may not have as much insight into the business operations and environment. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 95.

Answer: C
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor in this scenario is that the user department will manage access rights to the new accounting system. This could pose a significant risk of unauthorized access, segregation of duties violations, data tampering and fraud. The IS auditor should ensure that access rights are defined, approved and monitored by an independent function, such as IT security or internal audit. The other options are not as concerning as option C, as they can be mitigated by other controls or procedures. Data migration is an important part of the system replacement project, but it can be performed by another party or verified by the IS auditor. The timing of the replacement near year-end reporting is a challenge, but it can be managed by proper planning, testing and contingency plans. Testing performed by the third-party consultant is acceptable, as long as it is reviewed and validated by the IS auditor or another independent party. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.4: System Implementation.

Answer: A
Explanation: Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates the behavior and reliability of a system under extreme conditions, such as high workload, limited resources, or concurrent users. Stress testing should ideally be carried out under a test environment with production workloads, as this would simulate the most realistic and demanding scenario for the system without affecting the actual production environment. A production environment with production workloads is not suitable for stress testing, as it could cause disruption or damage to the system and its users. A production environment with test data is not suitable for stress testing, as it could compromise the integrity and security of the production data. A test environment with test data is not suitable for stress testing, as it could underestimate the potential issues and risks that could occur in the production environment. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 471-4721
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database,Question ID: 261

Answer: B
Explanation: The best source of information for IT management to estimate resource requirements for future projects is the records of actual time spent on projects. This data can provide a realistic and reliable basis for forecasting future resource needs based on historical trends and patterns. The records of actual time spent on projects can also help IT management to identify any gaps or inefficiencies in resource allocation and utilization. The human resources (HR) sourcing strategy is not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as it may not reflect the actual demand and availability of IT resources. The peer organization staffing benchmarks are not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as they may not account for the specific characteristics and needs of each organization. The budgeted forecast for the next financial year is not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as it may not be based on accurate or realistic assumptions. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 465-4661
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database,Question ID: 263

Answer: C

Answer: B
Explanation: A network firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A network firewall can help reduce the risk of denial of service (DoS) attacks, which are attempts to overwhelm a system or network with excessive requests or traffic, by filtering or blocking unwanted or malicious packets. A SQL injection attack is a type of code injection attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database query, by inserting malicious SQL statements into the input fields. A phishing attack is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware, by sending fraudulent emails or messages that impersonate legitimate entities. An insider attack is a type of malicious activity that originates from within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners, who abuse their access privileges or credentials to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information systems or data. A network firewall cannot prevent these types of attacks, as they rely on exploiting human or application weaknesses rather than network vulnerabilities.

Answer: D
Explanation: Access to the spreadsheet is given only to those who require access is the most important control for maintaining the security of data in the spreadsheet. An IS auditor should ensure that the principle of least privilege is applied to limit the access to sensitive financial data and prevent unauthorized disclosure, modification, or deletion. The other options are less important controls that may enhance the accuracy, availability, or integrity of data in the spreadsheet, but not its security. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 210

Answer: A
Explanation: The best way to prevent data leakage from a lost mobile device is data encryption on the mobile device. Data encryption is a technique that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Data encryption protects data from unauthorized access or disclosure in case of loss or theft of a mobile device. Complex password policy for mobile devices, triggering of remote data wipe capabilities, and awareness training for mobile device users are useful measures to enhance data security on mobile devices, but they do not prevent data leakage as effectively as data encryption. A complex password policy can be bypassed by brute force attacks or password cracking tools. Remote data wipe capabilities depend on network connectivity and device power availability. Awareness training for mobile device users can reduce human errors or negligence, but it cannot guarantee compliance or behavior change. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

Answer: A
Explanation: The most important thing to determine next after concluding that an organization has a quality security policy is whether the policy is well understood by all employees. A security policy is a document that defines the objectives, scope, roles, responsibilities, and rules for information security within an organization. A quality security policy is one that is clear, concise, consistent, comprehensive, and aligned with business goals and requirements. However, a quality security policy is useless if it is not well understood by all employees who are expected to comply with it.Therefore, the IS auditor should assess the level of awareness and understanding of the security policy among employees and identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. The other options are not as important as ensuring that the security policy is well understood by all employees, as they do not directly affect the implementation and effectiveness of the security policy. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 317

Answer: A
Explanation: The waterfall life cycle model of software development is best suited for situations where the project requirements are well understood. The waterfall life cycle model is a sequential and linear approach to software development that consists of several phases, such as planning, analysis, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance. Each phase depends on the completion and approval of the previous phase before proceeding to the next phase. The waterfall life cycle model is best suited for situations where the project requirements are well understood, as it assumes that the requirements are clear, stable, and fixed at the beginning of the project, and do not change significantly throughout the project. The project is subject to time pressures is not a situation where the waterfall life cycle model of software development is best suited, as it may not be flexible or agile enough to accommodate changes or adjustments in the project schedule or timeline. The waterfall life cycle model may involve long delays or dependencies between phases, and may not allow for early feedback or delivery of software products. The project intends to apply an object-oriented design approach is not a situation where the waterfall life cycle model of software development is best suited, as it may not be compatible or effective with the object-oriented design approach. The object-oriented design approach is a technique that models software as a collection of interacting objects that have attributes and behaviors. The object-oriented design approach may require iterative and incremental development methods that allow for dynamic and adaptive changes in software design and functionality. The project will involve the use of new technology is not a situation where the waterfall life cycle model of software development is best suited, as it may not be able to cope with the uncertainty or complexity of new technology. The waterfall life cycle model may not allow for sufficient exploration or experimentation with new technology, and may not be able to handle changes or issues that arise from new technology.

Answer: C
Explanation: Business stakeholders being involved in approving the IT strategy best demonstrates that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives. IT strategy is a plan that defines how IT resources and capabilities will support and enable the achievement of business goals and objectives. Business stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the organization’s activities and outcomes. By involving business stakeholders in approving the IT strategy, the organization can ensure that the IT strategy reflects and supports the business needs, expectations, and priorities. The other options do not necessarily indicate that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives, as they do not involve the participation or feedback of business stakeholders. References: CISAReview Manual, 27th Edition, page 97

Answer: A
Explanation: The system only allows payments to vendors who are included in the system’s master vendor list is an example of a preventative control in an accounts payable system. A preventative control is a control that aims to prevent errors or irregularities from occurring in the first place. By restricting payments to vendors who are authorized and verified in the master vendor list, the system prevents unauthorized or fraudulent payments from being made. The other options are examples of other types of controls, such as backup (recovery), reconciliation (detective), and communication (directive)
controls. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 223

Answer: B
Explanation: Signature-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) are systems that compare network traffic with predefined patterns of known attacks, called signatures. The effectiveness of signature-based IDS depends on how well they can detect new or unknown attacks that are not in their signature database. Therefore, an increase in the number of detected incidents not previously identified is the best indicator of the effectiveness of signature-based IDS, as it shows that they can recognize novel or modified attacks.

Answer: D
Explanation: The best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet. An IDS is a device or software that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. By placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet, the IS auditor can enhance the security of the network perimeter and detect any attack attempts that the firewall was unable to recognize.
The other options are not as effective as placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet:
Placing an IDS between the firewall and the organization’s web server would not protect the web server from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The web server should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ), which is a separate network segment that isolates public-facing servers from the internal network. Placing an IDS between the firewall and the demilitarized zone (DMZ) would not protect the DMZ from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The DMZ should be protected by twofirewalls, one facing the Internet and one facing the internal network, with an IDS monitoring both sides of each firewall.
Placing an IDS between the firewall and the organization’s network would not protect the organization’s network from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The organization’s network should be protected by a firewall that blocks unauthorized traffic from entering or leaving the network, with an IDS monitoring both sides of the firewall.

Answer: C
Explanation: The results of the previous audit are an important source of information for an IS auditor to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as they can provide insights into the current state and performance of the auditee, identify any issues or gaps that need to be followed up or addressed, and highlight any areas that require special attention or focus. The designof controls is an important factor to evaluate during an audit engagement, but it is not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as it does not reflect the actual implementation or effectiveness of the controls. Industry standards and best practices are useful benchmarks or guidelines for an IS auditor to compare or measure against during an audit engagement, but they are not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as they may not be applicable or relevant to the specific context or objectives of the auditee. The amount of time since the previous audit is a relevant criterion to determine the frequency or timing of an audit engagement, but it is not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as it does not indicate the level or nature of risk associated with the auditee.

Answer: A
Explanation: A staging environment is a replica of the production environment that is used to test and verify software before deploying it to production. A staging environment is most likely to have the same software version as production, as it mimics the real-world conditions and configurations that will be encountered in production. A testing environment is a separate environment that is used to perform various types of testing on software, such as functional testing, performance testing, security testing, etc. A testing environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may undergo frequent changes or updates based on testing results or feedback. An integration environment is a separate environment that is used to combine and test software components or modules from different developers or sources, to ensure that they work together as expected. An integration environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may involve different versions or branches of software from different sources. A development environment is a separate environment that is used by developers to create and modify software code. A development environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may contain unfinished or untested code that has not been released yet.

Answer: A
Explanation: The IS auditor’s primary concern when an organization has recently implemented a Voice-over IP (VoIP) communication system is a single point of failure for both voice and data communications. VoIP is a technology that allows voice communication over IP networks such as the internet. VoIP can offer benefits such as lower costs, higher flexibility, and better integration with other applications. However, VoIP also introduces risks such as dependency on network availability, performance, and security. If both voice and data communications share the same network infrastructure and devices, then a single point of failure can affect both services simultaneously and cause significant disruption to business operations. Therefore, the IS auditor should evaluate the availability and redundancy of the network components and devices that support VoIP communication. The other options are not as critical as a single point of failure for both voice and data communications, as they do not pose a direct threat to business continuity. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 385

Answer: A
Explanation: A threat actor is an entity or individual that poses a potential harm or danger to an organization’s information systems or data. Terminated staff are the threat actors in this scenario, as they are former employees who may still have active privileged accounts that grant them access to sensitive or critical information or resources of the organization. Terminated staff may abuse their access privileges or credentials to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the information systems or data, either intentionally or unintentionally. Unauthorized access is a threat event or action that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual gains access to an organization’s information systems or data without permission or authorization. Unauthorized access is not a threat actor, but rather a result of a threat actor’s activity. Deleted log data is a threat consequence or impact that occurs when log data, which are records of events or activities that occur on an information system or network, are erased or corrupted by a threat actor. Deleted log data can affect the auditability, accountability, and visibility of the information system or network, and prevent detection or investigation of security incidents. Deleted log data is not a threat actor, but rather a result of a threat actor’s activity. Hacktivists are threat actors who use hacking techniques to promote a political or social cause or agenda. Hacktivists are not the threat actors in this scenario, as there is no indication that they are involved in this case.

Answer: D
Explanation: Developing the CSA questionnaire is an activity that would allow an IS auditor to maintain independence while facilitating a control self-assessment (CSA). An IS auditor can design and provide a CSA questionnaire to help the business units or process owners to evaluate their own controls and identify any issues or improvement opportunities. This will enable an IS auditor to support and guide the CSA process without compromising their objectivity or independence. The other options are activities that would impair an IS auditor’s independence while facilitating a CSA, as they involve implementing, completing, or developing remediation actions for control issues. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.41
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 215

Answer: C
Explanation: Determining accountability of data owners is the most important activity in the data classification process. Data classification is a process that assigns categories or labels to data based on their value, sensitivity, criticality and risk to the organization. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection, access and retention for data. Determining accountability of data owners is an activity that identifies and assigns roles and responsibilities for data classification, protection and management to individuals or functions within the organization. Data owners are individuals or functions who have authority and responsibility for defining, classifying, protecting and managing data throughout their lifecycle. Determining accountability of data owners is essential for ensuring that data are classified correctly and consistently, and that data classification policies and procedures are followed and enforced. The other options are not as important as option C, as they are dependent on or derived from the accountability of data owners. Labeling the data appropriately is an activity that applies the categories or labels assigned by data owners to data based on their classification criteria. Identifying risk associated with the data is an activity that assesses the potential impact and likelihood of loss, disclosure, modification or destruction of data based on their classification level. Determining the adequacy of privacy controls is an activity that evaluates whether the controls implemented to protect personal or sensitive data are sufficient and effective based on their classification level. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Data Classification.

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to obtain assurance that certain automated calculations comply with the regulatory requirements is to re-perform the calculation with audit software. This will allow the auditor to independently verify the accuracy and validity of the calculation and compare it with the expected results. Reviewing sign-off documentation, source code, or user acceptance test results may not provide sufficient evidence or assurance that the calculation is correct and compliant. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), page 325
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, question ID 3335

Answer: B
Explanation: The type of firewall that provides the greatest degree of control against hacker intrusion is an application level gateway. A firewall is a device or software that filters or blocks network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall can help protect an information system or networkfrom unauthorized access or attack by hackers or other malicious entities. An application level gateway is a type of firewall that operates at the application layer of the network model (layer 7), which is where user applications communicate with each other over the network. An application level gateway provides the greatest degree of control against hacker intrusion, by inspecting and analyzing the content and context of each network packet at the application level, such as protocols, commands, requests, responses, etc., and allowing or denying access based on specific criteria or conditions. An application level gateway can also perform additional functions such as authentication, encryption, caching, logging, etc., to enhance the security and performance of network traffic. A circuit gateway is a type of firewall that operates at the transport layer of the network model (layer 4), which is where data are transferred between end points over the network. A circuit gateway provides a moderate degree of control against hacker intrusion by establishing a secure connection between two end points (such as client and server) and relaying network packets between them without inspecting or analyzing their content. A circuit gateway can also perform functions such as encryption, authentication, or address translation to improve the security and privacy of network traffic. A packet filtering router is a type of firewall that operates at the network layer of the network model (layer 3), which is where data are routed between different networks or subnets. A packet filtering router provides a low degree of control against hacker intrusion by examining the header of each network packet and allowing or denying access based on basic criteria such as source address, destination address, port number, protocol, etc. A packet filtering router can also perform functions such as routing, forwarding, or address translation to optimize the delivery and efficiency of network traffic. A screening router is a type of firewall that operates at the network layer of the network model (layer 3), which is where data are routed between different networks or subnets. A screening router provides a low degree of control against hacker intrusion by examining the header of each network packet and allowing or denying access based on basic criteria such as source address, destination address, port number, protocol, etc. A screening router can also perform functions such as routing, forwarding, or address translation to optimize the delivery and efficiency of network traffic.

Answer: C
Explanation: The most appropriate and effective fire suppression method for an un-staffed computer room is carbon dioxide (CO2). Carbon dioxide is a gaseous clean agent that extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen and reducing the combustion process. Carbon dioxide is suitable for un-staffed computer rooms because it does not leave any residue, damage, or corrosion on the electronic equipment, and it does not require water or other chemicals that could harm the environment or human health. However, carbon dioxide can pose a risk of asphyxiation to any person who may enter the computer room during or after the discharge, so proper safety precautions and warning signs should be in place.
The other options are not as appropriate or effective as carbon dioxide for an un-staffed computer room:
Water sprinkler. This is a common fire suppression method that uses water to cool down and extinguish fire. However, water sprinkler is not suitable for un-staffed computer rooms because it can cause severe damage to the electronic equipment, such as short circuits, corrosion, or data loss. Water sprinkler can also create a risk of electric shock to any person who may enter the computer room during or after the discharge.
Fire extinguishers. These are portable devices that contain a pressurized agent that can be sprayed on a fire to put it out. However, fire extinguishers are not effective for un-staffed computer rooms because they require manual operation by a trained person who can identify the type and location of the fire, and use the appropriate extinguisher. Fire extinguishers can also cause damage to the electronic equipment if they contain water or chemical agents.
Dry pipe. This is a type of sprinkler system that uses pressurized air or nitrogen in the pipes instead of water until a fire is detected. When a fire is detected, the air or nitrogen is released and water flows into the pipes and sprinklers. However, dry pipe is not ideal for un-staffed computer rooms because it still uses water as the extinguishing agent, which can damage the electronic equipment as mentioned above. Dry pipe also has a slower response time than wet pipe sprinkler systems, which can allow the fire to spread more quickly.

Answer: B
Explanation: Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification is the primary role of the IS auditor in an organization’s information classification process. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the information security controls are adequate and effective in safeguarding the information assets based on their classification levels. The other options are not the primary role of the IS auditor, but rather the responsibilities of the information owners, custodians, or security managers. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 206

Answer: D
Explanation: A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document, by using a hash function and an asymmetric encryption algorithm. A hash function is a mathematical function that transforms any input data into a fixed-length output value called a digest, which is unique for each input. An asymmetric encryption algorithm uses two keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key must be kept secret by the owner. To create a digital signature, the sender first applies a hash function to the plaintext message to generate a digest. Then, the sender encrypts the digest with their private key to produce the digital signature. To verify the digital signature, the receiver decrypts the digital signature with the sender’s public key to obtain the digest. Then, the receiver applies the same hash function to the plaintext message to generate another digest. If the two digests match, it means that the message has not been altered and that it came from the sender. The security of a digital signature depends on the secrecy of the sender’s private key. If an attacker obtains the sender’s private key, they can create fake digital signatures for any message they want, thus compromising the control provided by the digital signature. Reversing the hash function using the digest is not possible, as hash functions are designed to be one-way functions that cannot be inverted. Altering the plaintext message will result in a different digest after applying the hash function, which will not match with the decrypted digest from the digital signature, thus invalidating the digital signature. Deciphering the receiver’s public key is not relevant, as public keys are meant to be publicly available and do not affect the security of digital signatures.

Answer: B
Explanation: According to the ISACA’s Information Security Governance Guidance for Boards of Directors and Executive Management, the highest level of maturity of an information security program is Level 5: Optimized, which means that the program is aligned with the business objectives and strategy, and continuously monitors and improves its performance and effectiveness. A framework is in place to measure risks and track effectiveness, and the program is proactive, adaptive, and innovative.
The other options represent lower levels of maturity:
A training program is in place to promote information security awareness. This is Level 2: Repeatable, which means that the program has some basic policies and procedures, and provides awareness training to employees.
Information security policies and procedures are established. This is Level 3: Defined, which means that the program has formalized policies and procedures, and assigns roles and responsibilities for information security.
The program meets regulatory and compliance requirements. This is Level 4: Managed, which means that the program has established metrics and reporting mechanisms, and complies with relevant laws and regulations.
References: : ISACA. (2001). Information Security Governance Guidance for B

Answer: D
Explanation: he design of an incident management process should include prioritization criteria to ensure that incidents are handled according to their impact and urgency. Without prioritization criteria, the organization may not be able to allocate resources effectively and respond to incidents in a timely manner. Expected time to resolve incidents, service management standards, and metrics reporting are important aspects of incident management, but they are not as critical as prioritization criteria for the design of the process. References: ISACA Journal Article: Incident Management: A Practical Approach

Answer: C
Explanation: For an organization that has plans to implement web-based trading, it would be most important for an IS auditor to verify that the organization’s information security plan includes security requirements for the new application. Security requirements are statements that define what security features and functions are needed to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web-based trading application and its data. Security requirements should be identified and documented during the planning phase of the application development life cycle, before any design or coding activities take place. Attributes for system passwords, security training prior to implementation, and firewall configuration for the web server are also important aspects of information security, but they are not as essential as security requirements for ensuring that the web-based trading application meets its security objectives.

Answer: A
Explanation: Discovery sampling is an appropriate sampling method for an IS auditor who intends to launch an intensive investigation if one exception is found. Discovery sampling is a type of attribute sampling that determines the sample size based on an acceptable risk of not finding at least one occurrence of an attribute when a given rate of occurrence exists in a population. Discovery sampling can be used by an IS auditor who wants to detect fraud or errors that have a low probability but high impacton an audit objective. The other options are not appropriate sampling methods for this purpose, as they may involve judgmental sampling, variable sampling, or stratified sampling. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.31
CISA ReviewQuestions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 230

Answer: A
Explanation: The best audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy is reviewing the parameter settings. Parameter settings are values or options that define how a firewall operates and functions, such as rules, filters, ports, protocols, etc. By reviewing the parameter settings of a firewall, an IS auditor can verify whether they match with the organization’s security policy, which is a document that outlines the security objectives, requirements, and guidelines for an organization’s information systems and resources. Reviewing the system log is a possible audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as a system log records events or activities that occur on a firewall, such as connections, requests, responses, errors, alerts, etc., and may not indicate whether they comply with the organization’s security policy. Interviewing the firewall administrator is a possible audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as a firewall administrator may not provide accurate or reliable information about the firewall configuration, and may have conflicts of interest or ulterior motives. Reviewing the actual procedures is a possibleaudit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as actual procedures describe how a firewall is configured and maintained, such as installation, testing, updating, etc., and may not reflect whether they comply with the organization’s security policy.

Answer: D
Explanation: The best recommendation for the IS auditor to facilitate compliance with the new regulation is to include the requirement in the incident management response plan. An incident management response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, processes, and procedures for responding to security incidents. By including the new regulation in the plan, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization is aware of the reporting obligation, has a clear workflow for notifying the regulator within 24 hours, and has the necessary documentation and evidence to support the report. The other options are not as effective as including the requirement in the incident management response plan:
Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) for timely identification of security incidents is a good practice, but it does not guarantee compliance with the regulation. KPIs are metrics that measure the performance of a process or activity, but they do not specify how to perform it. The IS auditor should also provide guidance on how to identify and report security incidents within 24 hours. Engaging an external security incident response expert for incident handling is a possible option, but it may not be feasible or cost-effective. The organization may not have the budget or time to hire an external expert, or may prefer to handle the incidents internally. The IS auditor should also evaluate the qualifications and trustworthiness of the external expert, and ensure that they comply with the regulation and other contractual or legal obligations.
Enhancing the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS) is a useful measure, but it is not sufficient to comply with the regulation. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. However, an IDS may not detect all types of security incidents, or may generate false positives or negatives. The IS auditor should also consider other sources of incident detection, such as logs, reports, audits, or user feedback.

Answer: A
Explanation: The condition that would be of most concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk of a successful brute force attack against encrypted data at rest is short key length. A brute force attack is a method of breaking encryption by trying all possible combinations of keys until finding the correct one. The shorter the key length, the easier it is for an attacker to guess or crack the encryption. Random key generation, use of symmetric encryption, and use of asymmetric encryption are not conditions that would increase the risk of a successful brute force attack. In fact, random key generation can enhance security by preventing predictable patterns in key selection. Symmetric encryption and asymmetric encryption are different types of encryption that have their own advantages and disadvantages, but neither is inherently more vulnerable to brute force attacks than the other. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

Answer: B

Answer: D
Explanation: The most important input during the planning phase for an audit on the implementation of a bring your own device (BYOD) program is policies including BYOD acceptable user statements. Policies are documents that define the organization’s objectives, requirements, expectations, and responsibilities regarding a specific topic or area. BYOD policies should include acceptable user statements that specify what types of personal devices are allowed to connect to the corporate network, what security measures must be implemented on those devices, what data can be accessed or stored on those devices, what actions must be taken in case of device loss or theft, and what consequences will apply for non- compliance. Policies including BYOD acceptable user statements can provide an IS auditor with a clear understanding of the scope, criteria, and objectivesof the BYOD program audit. Findings from prior audits, results of a risk assessment, and an inventory of personal devices to be connected to the corporate network are also useful inputs for planning a BYOD program audit, but they are not as important as policies including BYOD acceptable user statements. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 381.

Answer: D
Explanation: The main purpose of an information security management system (ISMS) is to reduce the frequency and impact of information security incidents. An ISMS is a systematic approach to managing information security risks, policies, procedures, and controls within an organization. An ISMS aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets, as well as to comply with relevant laws and regulations. The other options are not the main purpose of an ISMS, but rather some of its possible benefits or components. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 205

Answer: D
Explanation: Reviewing a sample of system-generated backup logs is the best step to verify that regularly scheduled backups are timely and run to completion. Backup logs are records that document the details and results of backup operations, such as the date, time, duration, status, errors, and exceptions. By reviewing a sample of backup logs, the IS auditor can check whether the backups are performed according to the schedule and whether they are completed successfully or not. The other steps do not provide as much evidence or assurance as reviewing backup logs, as they do not show the actual outcome or performance of backup operations. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 247

Answer: B
Explanation: The most significant risk associated with a new health records system that replaces a legacy system is data not being converted correctly, resulting in inaccurate patient records. Data conversion is the process of transferring data from one format or system to another. Data conversion is a critical step in implementing a new health records system, as it ensures that the patient data are consistent, complete, accurate, and accessible in the new system. Data not being converted correctly may cause errors, discrepancies, or losses in patient records, which may have serious implications for patient safety, quality of care, legal compliance, and privacy protection. Staff not being involved in the procurement process, creating user resistance to the new system; the deployment project experiencing significant overruns, exceeding budget projections; and the new system having capacity issues, leading to slow response times for users are also risks associated with a new health records system implementation, but they are not as significant as data not being converted correctly. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 281.

Answer: A
Explanation: The IS quality assurance (QA) group is responsible for ensuring that program changes adhere to established standards. Program changes are modifications made to software applications or systems to fix errors, improve performance, add functionality, or meet changing requirements. Program changes should follow established standards for documentation, authorization, testing, implementation, and review. The IS QA group is responsible for verifying that program changes comply with these standards and meet the expected quality criteria. Designing procedures to protect dataagainst accidental disclosure; ensuring that the output received from system processing is complete; and monitoring the execution of computer processing tasks are not responsibilities of the IS QA group. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 304.

Answer: D
Explanation: IT disaster recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time that an IT system can be unavailable after a disaster before it causes unacceptable consequences for the business. IT RTOs should be based on the business-defined criticality of the systems, which reflects how important they are for supporting the business processes and functions. The maximum tolerable loss of data, the nature of the outage, and the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) are also factors that affect the IT RTOs, but they are not the primary basis for determining them.

Answer: A
Explanation: The audit charter is the document that defines the purpose, authority and responsibility of the IS audit function. It provides IS audit professionals with the best source of direction for performing audit functions, as it establishes the scope, objectives, reporting lines, independence, accountability and resources of the IS audit function. The IT steering committee is a governance body that oversees the strategic alignment, prioritization and direction of IT initiatives, but it does not provide specific guidance for IS audit functions. The information security policy is a document that defines the rules and principles for protecting information assets in the organization, but it does not cover all aspects of IS audit functions. Audit best practices are general guidelines and recommendations for conducting effective and efficient audits, but they are not binding or authoritative sources of direction for IS audit functions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.1: Audit Charter.

Answer: D
Explanation: When auditing the alignment of IT to the business strategy, it is most important for the IS auditor to evaluate deliverables of new IT initiatives against planned business services. This can help the IS auditor to assess whether the IT initiatives are meeting the business needs and expectations, delivering value and benefits, and supporting the business objectives and goals. Comparing the organization’s strategic plan against industry best practice is a possible technique for auditing the alignment of IT to the business strategy, but it is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to do, as industry best practice may not be applicable or relevant to the specific context or situation of the organization. Interviewing senior managers for their opinion of the IT function is a possible technique for auditing the alignment of IT to the business strategy, but it is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to do, as senior managers’ opinions may be subjective or biased, and may not reflect the actual performance or outcomes of the IT function. Ensuring an IT steering committee is appointed to monitor new IT projects is a possible control for ensuring the alignment of IT to the business strategy, but it is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to do, as an IT steering committee may not be effective or efficient in monitoring new IT projects, and may not have sufficient authority or influence over the IT function.

Answer: D
Explanation: Incremental backups are backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or incremental backup. The main reason to use incremental backups is to minimize the backup time and resources, as they require less storage space and network bandwidth than full backups. Incremental backups can also improve key availability metrics, such as recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO), but that is not their primary purpose. Reducing costs associated with backups and increasing backup resiliency and redundancy are possible benefits of incremental backups, but they depend on other factors, such as the backup frequency, retention policy, and media type. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

Answer: C
Explanation: The most information about the transaction audit trail in an online application can be obtained by reviewing the system/process flowchart. A system/process flowchart is a diagram that illustrates the sequence of steps, activities, or events that occur within or affect a system or process. A system/process flowchart can provide the most information about the transaction audit trail in an online application, by showing how transactions are initiated, processed, recorded, and completed, and identifying the inputs, outputs, controls, and dependencies involved in each transaction. File layouts are specifications that define how data are structured or organized on a file or database. File layouts can provide some information about the transaction audit trail in an online application, by showing what data elements are stored or retrieved for each transaction, but they do not provide information about how transactions are executed or tracked. Data architecture is a framework that defines how data are collected, stored, managed, and used within an organization or system. Data architecture can provide some information about the transaction audit trail in an online application, by showing what data sources, models, standards, and policies are used for each transaction, but they do not provide information about how transactions are performed or monitored. Source code documentation is a description or explanation of the source code of a software program or application. Source code documentation can provide some information about the transaction audit trail in an online application, by showing what logic, algorithms, or functions are used for each transaction, but they do not provide information about how transactions are handled or audited.

Answer: D
Explanation: Following a configuration management process to maintain applications is the primary reason for ensuring proper change control. Configuration management is a process of identifying, documenting, controlling, and verifying the configuration items and their interrelationships within an IT system or environment. Following a configuration management process can help to ensure that any changes to the applications are authorized, tested, documented, and tracked throughout their lifecycle. This will help to prevent unauthorized or improper changes that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the applications. The other options are not the primary reasons for following a configuration management process, but rather possible benefits or outcomes of doing so. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 225

Answer: D
Explanation: A key performance indicator (KPI) is a quantifiable measure of performance over time for a specific objective1. KPIs help organizations and teams track their progress and achievements towards their strategic goals. To be useful, a KPI must have a target value, which is the desired level of performance or outcome that the organization or team aims to achieve. A target value provides a clear direction and a benchmark for measuring success or failure. Without a target value, a KPI is meaningless, as it does not indicate whether the performance is good or bad, or how far or close the organization or team is from reaching their objective.

Answer: A
Explanation: The exact definition of the service levels and their measurement is the first thing that the IS auditor should review in order to understand the problem of different opinions on the availability of their application servers. Service levels are the agreed-upon standards or targets for delivering IT services, such as availability, reliability, performance, and security. Service level measurement is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting data related to the achievement of service levels. By reviewing the exact definition of the service levels and their measurement, the IS auditor can identify any gaps, inconsistencies, or ambiguities that may cause confusion or disagreement among IT and the business. The other options are not as important as reviewing the exact definition of the service levels and their measurement, as they do not address the root cause of the
problem. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition,page 372

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users is implementing role-based access at the application level. Role-based access is a method of access control that assigns permissions or privileges to users based on their roles or functions within an organization or system. Role-based access can help ensure that payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, by allowing only authorized users who have a legitimate need orpurpose to access or use the payment transaction data, and preventing unauthorized or unnecessary access or use by other users. Implementing two-factor authentication is a possible way to enhance the security and verification of user identities, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not define what permissions or privileges users have on the payment transaction data. Restricting access to transactions using network security software is a possible way to protect the network communication and transmission of payment transaction data, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not specify what actions or operations users can perform on the payment transaction data. Using a single menu for sensitive application transactions is a possible way to simplify the user interface and navigation of payment transaction data, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not limit what users can access or use the payment transaction data.

Answer: D
Explanation: Changes to the job scheduler application’s parameters are not approved and reviewed by an operations supervisor. This is a serious control weakness that could compromise the integrity, availability, and security of the IT operations. An IS auditor should be concerned about the lack of oversight and accountability for such changes, which could result in unauthorized, erroneous, or malicious modifications that affect the processing environment. The other options are less critical issues that may not have a significant impact on the IT operations. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 202

Answer: B
Explanation: The auditor’s best course of action after a security breach in which a hacker exploited a well-known vulnerability in the domain controller is to determine if the logs were monitored. Log monitoring is an essential control for detecting and responding to security incidents, especially when known vulnerabilities exist in the system. The auditor should assess if the logs were properly configured, collected, reviewed, analyzed, and acted upon by the responsible parties. Updating patches, monitoring network traffic, and classifying domain controllers for high availability are also important controls, but they are not directly related to the detection and response of the security breach. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), page 301
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, question ID 3340

Answer: D
Explanation: In a RAO model, which stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed, the accountable role must be assigned to only one individual. The accountable role is the person who has the ultimate authority and responsibility for the outcome of the project or task, and who approves or rejects the work done by the responsible role. The accountable role cannot be delegated or shared, as it is essential to have a clear and single point of accountability for each project or task.
The other roles can be assigned to more than one individual:
Responsible. This is the person who does the work or performs the task. There can be multiple responsible roles for different aspects or phases of a project or task, as long as they are coordinated and supervised by the accountable role. Informed. This is the person who needs to be notified or updated about the progress or results of the project or task. There can be multiple informed roles who have an interest or stake in the project or task, but who do not need to be consulted or involved in the decision-making process.
Consulted. This is the person who provides input, feedback, or advice on the project or task. There can be multiple consulted roles who have expertise or experience relevant to the project or task, but who do not have the authority or responsibility to approve or reject the work done by the responsible role.

Answer: A
Explanation: The completeness of the vulnerability scanning process depends on the accuracy and currency of the organization’s systems inventory, which is a list of all the hardware and software assets that are owned or used by the organization. A complete and up-to-date systems inventory can help ensure that all the systems are identified and scanned for vulnerabilities, and that no system is missed or overlooked. Vulnerability scanning results are reported to the CISO is a good practice for ensuring accountability and visibility of the vulnerability management process, but it is not the most important thing to verify when determining the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, as reporting does not guarantee that all the systems are scanned. The organization is using a cloud-hosted scanning tool for identification of vulnerabilities is a possible option for conducting vulnerability scanning, but it is not the most important thing to verify when determining the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, as the type of scanning tool does not affect the scope or coverage of the scanning. Access to the vulnerability scanning tool is periodically reviewed is a critical control for ensuring the security and integrity of the vulnerability scanning tool, but it is not the most important thing to verify when determining the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, as access review does not ensure that all the systems are scanned.

Answer: A
Explanation: A firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help protect an organization’s network and information systems from unauthorized or malicious access, by filtering or blocking unwanted or harmful packets. The most important thing for an IS auditor to verify when evaluating an organization’s firewall is that the logs are being collected in a separate protected host. Logs are records of events or activities that occur on a system or network, such as connections, requests, responses, errors, and alerts. Logs can provide valuable information for auditing, monitoring, troubleshooting, and investigating security incidents. However, logs can also be tampered with, deleted, or corrupted by attackers or insiders who want to hide their tracks or evidence of their actions. Therefore, it is essential that logs are stored in a separate host that is isolated and secured from the network and the firewall itself, to prevent unauthorized access or modification of the logs. Automated alerts are being sent when a risk is detected is a good practice for enhancing the security and efficiency of a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as alerts may not always be accurate, timely, or actionable. Insider attacks are being controlled is a desirable outcome for a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as insider attacks may involve other factors or methods that bypass or compromise the firewall, such as social engineering, credential theft, or physical access. Access to configuration files is restricted is a critical control for ensuring the security and integrity of a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as configuration files may not reflect the actual state or performance of the firewall.

Answer: A
Explanation: Asking management why the regulatory changes have not been included is the first thing that an IS auditor should do during the planning stage of a compliance audit. An IS auditor should inquire about the reasons for not updating the inventory of compliance requirements with recent regulatory changes related to managing data risk. This will help the IS auditor to understand whether there is a gap in awareness, communication, or implementation of compliance obligations within the organization. The other options are not the first things that an IS auditor should do, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on management’s response. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 214

Answer: C
Explanation: In an online application, data architecture provides the most information about the transaction audit trail, as it describes how data are created, stored, processed, accessed and exchanged among different components of the application. Data architecture includes data models, schemas, dictionaries, metadata, standards and policies that define the structure, quality, integrity, security and governance of data. Data architecture can help the IS auditor to trace the origin, flow, transformation and destination of data in an online transaction, and to identify the key data elements, attributes and relationships that are relevant for audit purposes. A system/process flowchart is a graphical representation of the sequence of steps or activities that are performed by a system or process. A system/process flowchart can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. A system/process flowchart shows the inputs, outputs, decisions and actions of a system or process, but it does not show the data elements, attributes and relationships that are involved in each step or activity. A file layout is a specification of the format and structure of a data file. A file layout can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. A file layout shows the fields, types, lengths and positions of data in a file, but it does not show the origin, flow, transformation and destination of data in an online transaction. Source code documentation is a description of the logic, functionality and purpose of a program or module written in a programming language. Source code documentation can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. Source code documentation shows the instructions, variables and parameters that are used to perform calculations and operations on data, but it does not show the data elements, attributes and relationships that are involved in each instruction or operation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2: Data Administration Practices.

Answer: D
Explanation: Providing security certification for a new system should include an evaluation of the configuration management practices prior to the system’s implementation. Configuration management is a process that ensures that the system’s components are identified, controlled, and tracked throughout the system’s lifecycle. Configuration management helps to maintain the security and integrity of the system by preventing unauthorized or unintended changes. End-user authorization to use the system in production is not part of security certification, but rather a post-implementation activity that grants access rights to authorized users. External audit sign-off on financial controls is not part of security certification, but rather a verification activity that ensures that the system complies with financial reporting standards. Testing of the system within the production environment is not part of securitycertification, but rather a validation activity that ensures that the system meets the functional and performance requirements. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 449-4501
CISA Review Questions, Answers& Explanations Database, Question ID: 2572

Answer: D
Explanation: Antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only is the observation that an IS auditor would consider the greatest risk when conducting an audit of a virtual server farm for potential software vulnerabilities. A virtual server farm is a collection of servers that run multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical host using a software layer called a hypervisor. A guest operating system is the operating system installed on each VM. Antivirus software is a software program that detects and removes malicious software from a computer system. If antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only, it means that the hypervisor and the host operating system are not protected from malware attacks, which could compromise the security and availability of all VMs running on the same host. Therefore, antivirus software should be implemented on both the guest and host operating systems as well as on the hypervisor. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 378

Answer: C
Explanation: During an audit of a multinational bank’s disposal process, an IS auditor should be most concerned about backup media being disposed before the end of the retention period. This is because backup media contain sensitive and critical data that may be required for business continuity, legal compliance, or forensic purposes. Disposing backup media prematurely may result in data loss, unavailability, or corruption, which may have severe consequences for the bank’s reputation, operations, and security. Backup media not being reviewed before disposal, degaussing being used instead of physical shredding, and hardware not being destroyed by a certified vendor are also findings that may pose some risks to the bank’s disposal process, but they are not as critical as backup media being disposed before the end of the retention period. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 302.

Answer: D
Explanation: Verification of hash totals is a detective control. A detective control is a control that aims to identify and report errors or irregularities that have already occurred. Verification of hash totals is a technique that compares the hash values of data before and after transmission or processing to detect any changes or corruption. The other options are examples of other types of controls, such as programmed edit checks (preventive), backup procedures (recovery), and use of pass cards (preventive). References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 223

Answer: C
Explanation: This should be the IS auditor’s greatest concern, because it means that the organization has not considered the potential impact of the cloud document storage solution on its ability to continue its operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP is a document that outlines the procedures and actions to be taken in order to maintain or resume critical business functions during and after a crisis. A BCP should be updated whenever there is a significant change in the organization’s IT infrastructure, systems, processes, or dependencies, such as implementing a cloud document storage solution. The IS auditor should verify that the BCP reflects the current state of the organization’s IT environment and that it addresses the risks, challenges, and opportunities associated with the cloud document storage solution.
The other options are not as concerning as the BCP not being updated:
Users are not required to sign updated acceptable use agreements. This is a minor concern, but it does not pose a major threat to the organization’s business continuity. Acceptable use agreements are documents that define the rules and guidelines for using IT resources, such as the cloud document storage solution. Users should sign updated acceptable use agreements to acknowledge their responsibilities and obligations, and to comply with the organization’s policies and standards. However, this does not affect the organization’s ability to continue its operations in a crisis.
Users have not been trained on the new system. This is a moderate concern, but it does not jeopardize the organization’s business continuity. Training users on the new system is important to ensure that they can use it effectively and efficiently, and to avoid errors or misuse that could compromise the security or performance of the system. However, this does not prevent the organization from accessing or restoring its data in a crisis.
Mobile devices are not encrypted. This is a serious concern, but it does not directly impact the organization’s business continuity. Encrypting mobile devices is a security measure thatprotects the data stored on them from unauthorized access or disclosure in case of loss or theft. However, this does not affect the availability or integrity of the data stored in the cloud document storage solution, which should have its own encryption mechanisms.

Answer: B
Explanation: The first thing that should be done before allowing users to connect personal devices to the corporate network is to implement an acceptable use policy. An acceptable use policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using personal devices on the corporate network, such as security requirements, access rights, responsibilities, and consequences. An acceptable use policy can help to protect the organization from potential risks such as data leakage, malware infection, or legal liability. The other options are not as important as implementing an acceptable use policy, as they do not establish the boundaries and expectations for using personal devices on the corporate network. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 318

Answer: C
Explanation: The best indicator of the effectiveness of an organization’s incident response program is the financial impact per security event. This metric measures the direct and indirect costs associated with security incidents, such as loss of revenue, reputation damage, legal fees, recovery expenses, and fines. By reducing the financial impact per security event, the organization can demonstrate that its incident response program is effective in mitigating the consequences of security breaches and restoring normal operations as quickly as possible. Number of successful penetration tests, percentage of protected business applications, and number of security vulnerability patches are indicators of the security posture of the organization, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the incident response program. References: ISACA Journal Article: Measuring Incident Response Effectiveness

Answer: C

Answer: C
Explanation: The best source of information for an IS auditor to use as a baseline to assess the adequacy of an organization’s privacy policy is the local privacy standards and regulations. Privacy standards and regulations are legal requirements that specify how personal data should be collected, processed, stored, shared, and disposed of by organizations. By using local privacy standards and regulations as a baseline, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization’s privacy policy complies with the applicable laws and protects the rights and interests of data subjects. Historical privacy breaches and related root causes, globally accepted privacy best practices, and benchmark studies of similar organizations are useful sources of information for improving an organization’s privacy policy, but they are not as authoritative and relevant as local privacy standards and
regulations. References: CISAReview Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 2 - Governance and Management of Information Technology

Answer: B
Explanation: A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) is the best way to protect an organization’s proprietary code during a joint-development activity involving a third party. An NDA is a legal contract that binds the parties involved in a joint-development activity to keep confidential any information, data or materials that are shared or exchanged during the activity. An NDA specifies what constitutes confidential information, how it can be used, disclosed or protected, how long it remains confidential, what are the exceptions and remedies for breach of confidentiality, and other terms and conditions. An NDA can help to protect an organization’s proprietary code from being copied, modified, distributed or exploited by unauthorized parties without its consent or knowledge. The other options are not as effective as option B, as they do not address confidentiality issues specifically. A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, tasks, roles, responsibilities, timelines and costs of a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the quality, performance and availability standards and metrics for a service provided by one party to another party in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A privacy agreement is a document that defines how personal information collected from customers or users is collected, used, disclosed and protected by one party or both parties in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues related to proprietary code. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.2: Project Management Practices.

Answer: D
Explanation: Identifying business processes associated with personal data exchange with the affected jurisdiction is the most helpful activity in making an assessment of the organization’s level of exposure in the affected country. An IS auditor should understand how the organization’s business operations and functions rely on or involve the cross-border transfer of personal data, as well as the potentialimpacts and risks of the new regulation on the business continuity and compliance. The other options are less helpful activities that may provide additional information or context for the assessment, but not its primary focus. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.4.21
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 221

Answer: C
Explanation: The best environment for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format is the staging environment. The staging environment is a temporary area where data from various sources are extracted, transformed, and loaded (ETL) before being moved to the data warehouse. The staging environment allows for data cleansing, validation, integration, and standardization without affecting the source or target systems. The testing environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for verifying and validating the functionality and performance of applications or systems. The replication environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating identical copies of data or systems for backup or recovery purposes. The development environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating or modifying applications or systems. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 475-4761
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 2642

Answer: B
Explanation: The most effective way for the audit team to leverage the risk management maturity of the organization is to integrate the risk register for audit planning purposes. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project or an organization. By using the risk register, the audit team can align their audit objectives, scope, and procedures with the organization’s risk profile and priorities. This will help the audit team to provide more value-added and relevant assurance and recommendations to the management and stakeholders.
Some of the web sources that support this answer are:

Audit Maturity And Risk Management | Ideagen
Building a Mature Enterprise Risk Management Plan | AuditBoard
CISA CertifiedInformation Systems Auditor – Question0551

Answer: D
Explanation: The auditor’s best course of action when senior management disagrees with some of the facts presented in the draft audit report is to gather evidence to analyze senior management’s objections. The auditor should not revise the assessment, escalate the issue, or finalize the report without changes until they have evaluated the validity and relevance of senior management’s objections and resolved any discrepancies or misunderstandings. The auditor should maintain a professional and objective attitude and seek to present a fair and accurate audit report based on sufficient and appropriate evidence. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), page 372
CISA Questions,Answers & Explanations Database, question ID 3338

Answer: B
Explanation: The most significant concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit is that there is a greater risk of system exploitation. System exploitation is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual takes advantage of a vulnerability or weakness in a system to compromise its security or functionality. System exploitation can cause harm or damage to the system or its users, such as data loss, corruption, theft, manipulation, denial of service (DoS), etc. An ICS that uses older unsupported technology poses a high risk of system exploitation, as older technology may have known or unknown vulnerabilities or defects that have not been patched or fixed by the vendor or manufacturer, and unsupported technology may not receive any updates or support from the vendor or manufacturer in case of issues or incidents. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Attack vectors are methods or pathways that attackers use to gain access to or attack a system. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems, as attackers are developing new techniques or tools to target ICSs that are increasingly connected and complex. However, this concern may not be specific to older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level. Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. DRPs are documents that outline the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical functions or processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. DRPs are not in place, as they may affect the availability and continuity of the ICS and its functions or processes in case of a failure or incident. However, this concern may not be related to older unsupported technology, as it may apply to any ICS regardless of its technology level. Technical specifications are not documented is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Technical specifications are documents that describe the technical characteristics or requirements of a system or component, such as functionality, performance, design, etc. Technical specifications are not documented, as they may affect the understanding, maintenance, and improvement of the ICS and its components. However, this concern may not beassociated with older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level.

Answer: D
Explanation: Unauthorized changes can be moved into production is the best concern that is addressed by securing production source libraries. Production source libraries contain the source code of programs that are used in the production environment. Securing production source libraries means implementing access controls, change management procedures, and audit trails to prevent unauthorized or improper changes to the source code that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the production programs. The other options are less relevant concerns that may not be directly addressed by securing production source libraries, but rather by other controls such as program approval, version control, or change testing. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3.21
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 213

Answer: C
Explanation: This should result in a finding because it violates the best practice of setting rules for groups rather than users. According to one of the web search results1, using group permissions instead of individual permissions can simplify the management and maintenance of ACLs, reduce the risk of human errors, and ensure consistency and compliance. Individual permissions can create conflicts, confusion, and security gaps in the ACLs. Therefore, the IS auditor should report this as a finding and recommend using group permissions instead.

Answer: C
Explanation: A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure. An IS auditor can use an SLA to measure how well the IT infrastructure meets the business needs and objectives, as well as to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. The other options are not directly related to measuring the performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 203

Answer: A
Explanation: Analyzing risks posed by new regulations is an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program. An internal auditor can provide assurance and advisory services on the compliance and effectiveness of the privacy program, as well as identify and assess the potential risks and impacts of new or changing privacy regulations. The other options are not appropriate roles of internal audit, but rather the responsibilities of the management, the information security officer, or the privacy officer. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.4.21
CISA Review Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID 216

Answer: C
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor when an international organization intends to roll out a global data privacy policy is that local regulations may contradict the policy. Data privacy regulations vary across different countries and regions, and they may impose different or conflicting requirements on how personal data can be collected, processed, stored, transferred, and disclosed. The organization should ensure that its global data privacy policy complies with the applicable local regulations in each jurisdiction where it operates, or risk facing legal sanctions or reputational damage. Requirements may become unreasonable, but this is not a major concern for an IS auditor, as it is a business decision that should be based on a cost-benefit analysis. The policy may conflict with existing application requirements, but this is not a serious concern for an IS auditor, as it can be resolved by modifying or updating the applications to align with the policy. Local management may not accept the policy, but this is not a critical concern for an IS auditor, as it can be mitigated by providing adequate training and awareness on the policy and its benefits. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 406-4071
CISA Review Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID: 2592

Answer: D
Explanation: Impact assessment is an activity that occurs during the issues management process for a system development project. Issues management is a process of identifying, analyzing, resolving, and monitoring issues that may affect the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. Impact assessment is a technique of evaluating the severity and priority of an issue, as well as its implications for the project objectives and deliverables. The other options are not activities that occur during the issues management process, but rather related to other processes such as contingency planning, configuration management, or help desk management. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 217

Answer: C
Explanation: The IS auditor’s primary concern when auditing the proposed acquisition of new computer hardware is that a clear business case has been established. A business case is a document that justifies the need, feasibility, and benefits of a proposed project or investment. A clear business case can help to ensure that the acquisition of new computer hardware is aligned with the organization’s goals, objectives, and requirements, and that it provides value for money and return on investment. The other options are not as important as establishing a clear business case, as they do not address the rationale or justification for acquiring new computer hardware. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 467

Answer: B
Explanation: The impact if corrective actions are not taken is the most important factor to consider when scheduling follow-up audits. An IS auditor should prioritize the follow-up audits based on the risk and potential consequences of not addressing the audit findings and recommendations. The other options are less important factors that may affect the timing and scope of the follow-up audits, but not their necessity or urgency. References:

CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.5.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 207

Answer: A
Explanation: The greatest security risk associated with data migration from a legacy human resources (HR) system to a cloud-based system is data from the source and target system may be intercepted. Data interception is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual captures or accesses data that are being transmitted or stored on an information system or network. Data interception can compromise the confidentiality and integrity of data, and cause harm or damage to data owners or users. Data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system involves transferring data from one system or location to another system or location over a network connection. This poses a high risk of data interception, as data may be exposed or vulnerable during transit or storage on unsecured or untrusted networks or systems. Data from the source and target system may have different data formats is a possible challenge associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. Data formats are specifications that define how data are structured or encoded on an information system or network. Data formats may vary depending on different systems or platforms. Data migration may require converting data from one format to another format to ensure compatibility and interoperability between systems. Records past their retention period may not be migrated to the new system is a possible outcome associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. Retention period is a duration that defines how long data should be kept or stored on an information system or network before being deleted or destroyed. Retention period may depend on various factors such as legal requirements, business needs, storage capacity, etc. Data migration may involve deleting or destroying data that are past their retention period to reduce the volume or complexity of data to be transferred or to comply with regulations or policies. System performance may be impacted by the migration is a possible impact associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. System performance is a measure of how well an information system or network functions or operates, such as speed, reliability, availability, etc. System performance may be affected by data migration, as data migration mayconsume significant resources or bandwidth, cause interruptions or delays, or introduce errors or inconsistencies.

Answer: B
Explanation: A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects or consequences of disruptions or disasters on an organization’s critical business functions or processes. A BIA can help prioritize the recovery of critical functions by assessing their importance and urgency for the organization’s operations, objectives, and stakeholders, and determining their recovery time objectives (RTOs), which are the maximum acceptable time for restoring a functionafter a disruption. A business continuity plan (BCP) testing is a process that verifies and validates the effectiveness and readiness of a BCP, which is a document that outlines the strategies and procedures for ensuring the continuity of critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP testing does not prioritize the recovery of critical functions, but rather evaluates how well they are recovered according to the BCP. A disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing is a process that verifies and validates the effectiveness and readiness of a DRP, which is a document that outlines the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A DRP testing does not prioritize the recovery of critical functions, but rather evaluates how well they are supported by the IT systems and infrastructure according to the DRP. A risk assessment is a process that identifies and analyzes the potential threats and vulnerabilities that could affect an organization’s critical business functions or processes. A risk assessment does not prioritize the recovery of critical functions, but rather estimates their likelihood and impact of being disrupted by various risk scenarios.

Answer: A
Explanation: When implementing Internet Protocol security (IPsec) architecture, the servers involved in application delivery communicate via Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. IPsec operates at the network layer and provides security for IP packets, while TLS operates at the transport layer and provides security for TCP connections. Blocking authorized users from unauthorized activities, channeling access only through the public-facing firewall, and channeling access through authentication are not functions of IPsec
architecture. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2

Answer: A
Explanation: The best way to determine whether a test of a disaster recovery plan (DRP) was successful is to analyze whether predetermined test objectives were met. Test objectives are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that define what the test aims to accomplish and how it will be evaluated. Test objectives should be aligned with the DRP objectives and scope, and should cover aspects such as recovery time objectives (RTOs), recovery point objectives (RPOs), critical business functions, roles and responsibilities, communication channels, backup systems, and contingency procedures. By comparing the actual test results with the expected test objectives, the IS auditor can measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the DRP and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed.

Answer: D
Explanation: A proper audit trail of changes to server start-up procedures would include evidence of operator overrides, which are actions taken by the system operator to bypass or modify the normal execution of the server start-up process. Operator overrides may indicate unauthorized or improper changes that could affect the security, availability, or performance of the server. Therefore, an audit trail should capture and document any operator overrides that occur during the server start-up process.
Evidence of subsystem structure, program execution, and security control options are not directly related to changes to server start-up procedures. Subsystem structure refers to the components and relationships of a subsystem within a larger system. Program execution refers to the process of running a software program on a computer. Security control options refer to the settings and parameters that define the security level and access rights for a system or application. These are all important aspects of auditing a server, but they do not provide evidence of changes to server start-up procedures.

Answer: A
Explanation: The best way to protect sensitive information such as personally identifiable information (PII) stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments is data masking. Data masking is a technique that replaces or obscures sensitive data elements with fictitious or modified data elements that retain the original format and characteristics of the data. Data masking can help protect sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments by preventing the exposure or disclosure of the real data values without affecting the functionality or performance of the software or application. The other options are not as effective as data masking in protecting sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments, as they have different limitations or drawbacks. Data tokenization is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive tokens that have no intrinsic value or meaning. Data tokenization can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or theft, but it may not retain the original format and characteristics of the data, which may affect the functionality or performance of the software or application. Data encryption is a technique that transforms sensitive data elements into unreadable or unintelligible ciphertext using an algorithm and a key. Data encryption can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or modification, but it requires decryption to restore the original data values, which may introduce additional complexity or overhead to the software development process. Data abstraction is a technique that hides the details or complexity of data structures or operations from users or programmers by providing a simplified representation or interface. Data abstraction can help improve the usability or maintainability of software or applications, but it does not protect sensitive information such as PII from exposure or disclosure. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2

Answer: A
Explanation: The most useful tool for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization’s goals is a balanced scorecard. A balanced scorecard is a strategic managementsystem that translates an organization’s vision and mission into a set of objectives and measures across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. A balanced scorecard helps align IT goals with organizational goals by linking them to a common strategy map that shows how IT contributes to value creation and performance improvement in each perspective. A balanced scorecard also helps monitor and evaluate IT performance against predefined targets and indicators. Enterprise dashboard, enterprise architecture (EA), and key performance indicators (KPIs) are not the most useful tools for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization’s goals. These tools may help communicate, design, or measure IT goals or activities, but they do not provide a comprehensive framework for aligning IT goals with organizational goals across multiple dimensions.

Answer: B
Explanation: Data analytics can be used to compare data from different sources and identify any discrepancies or anomalies. In this case, comparing a population of loans input in the origination system to loans booked on the servicing system can help detect any errors or frauds in the loan origination process. The other options are not examples of data analytics, but rather controls for data integrity, reconciliation, and error handling. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2

Answer: A
Explanation: Information security policies are high-level statements that define the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from threats and risks. They should be based primarily on a risk management process, which is a systematic method of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, and monitoring information security risks. A risk management process can help ensure that the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite, business objectives, legal and regulatory requirements, and stakeholder expectations. An information security framework is a set of standards, guidelines, and best practices that provide a structure for implementing information security policies. It can support the risk management process, but it is not the primary basis for defining the policies. Past information security incidents and industry best practices can also provide valuable inputs for defining the policies, but they are not sufficient to address the organization’s specific context and needs. References: Insights and Expertise, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

Answer: A
Explanation: A post-implementation review (PIR) is an assessment conducted at the end of a project cycle to determine if the project was indeed successful and to identify any existing flaws in the project1. One of the main objectives of a PIR isto evaluate the outcome and functional value of a project1. Therefore, an IS auditor should be most concerned with whether the system meets the intended requirements and delivers the expected benefits to the stakeholders. A system that does not have a maintenance plan is a major risk, as it may not be able to cope with changing needs, fix errors, or prevent security breaches. A maintenance planis essential for ensuring the system’s reliability, availability, and performance in the long term2.
The other options are less critical for a PIR, as they are more related to the project management aspects than the system quality aspects. The system may contain several minor defects that do not affect its functionality or usability, and these can be resolved in future updates. The system deployment may be delayed by three weeks due to unforeseen circumstances or dependencies, but this does not necessarily mean that the system is faulty or ineffective. The system may be over budget by 15% due to various factors such as scope creep, resource constraints, or market fluctuations, but this does not imply that the system is not valuable or beneficial.
References: 1: Post-Implementation Review Best Practices - MetaPM 2: What is Post-Implementation Review in Project Management?

Answer: D
Explanation: The IS auditor’s independence would be most likely impaired if they implemented a specific control during the development of an application system. This is because the IS auditor would be auditing their own work, which creates a self-review threat that could compromise their objectivity and impartiality. The IS auditor should avoid participating in any operational or management activities that could affect their ability to perform an unbiased audit. The other options do not pose a significant threat to the IS auditor’s independence, as long as they follow the ethical standards and guidelines of the profession.

Answer: D
Explanation: The best way to address segregation of duties issues in an organization with budget constraints is to implement compensating controls, which are alternative controls that reduce or eliminate the risk of errors or fraud due to inadequate segregation of duties. Compensating controls may include independent reviews, reconciliations, approvals, or supervisions. Rotating job duties periodically may reduce the risk of collusion or abuse of privileges, but it may also affect operational efficiency and continuity. Performing an independent audit may detect segregation of duties issues, but it does not prevent them. Hiring temporary staff may increase operational costs and introduce new
risks. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4

Answer: D
Explanation: Fine tuning the intrusion detection system (IDS) is the best recommendation to reduce the number of false positive alerts that overwhelm the log management system, because it can help adjust the sensitivity and accuracy of the IDS rules and signatures to match the network environment and traffic patterns. Establishing criteria for reviewing alerts, recruiting more monitoring personnel, and reducing thefirewall rules are not effective solutions to address theroot cause of the false positive alerts, but rather ways to cope with the consequences. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section5.4.3

Answer: B
Explanation: The best test to provide assurance that a health care organization is handling patient data appropriately is compliance with local laws and regulations, as these are the primary sources of authority and obligation for data protection and privacy. Compliance with action plans, industry standards, or organizational policies and procedures are also important, but they may not cover all the legal requirements or reflect the currentbest practices for handling patient data. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.3

Answer: D
Explanation: The role within the RACI chart that would provide information on who has oversight of staff performing a specific task is accountable. A RACI chart is a matrix that defines and assigns the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders for a project, process, or activity. RACI stands for responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. Accountable is the role that has the authority and oversight to approve or reject the work done by the responsible role. The other options are not the roles that provide information on who has oversight of staff performing a specific task, as they have different meanings and functions. Consulted is the role that provides input or advice to the responsible or accountable roles. Informed is the role that receives updates or reports from the responsible or accountable roles. Responsible is the role that performs or executes the work or task. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

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