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CheckPoint 156-315.80 Dumps

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CheckPoint 156-315.80 Frequently Asked Questions

CheckPoint 156-315.80 Sample Questions

Question # 1

The Correlation Unit performs all but the following actions:

A. Marks logs that individually are not events, but may be part of a larger pattern to be identified later.
B. Generates an event based on the Event policy.
C. Assigns a severity level to the event.
D. Takes a new log entry that is part of a group of items that together make up an event, and adds it to an ongoing event.


Question # 2

Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?

A. cpwd_admin -l
B. cpwd -l
C. cpwd admin_list
D. cpwd_admin list


Question # 3

Installations and upgrades with CPUSE require that the CPUSE agent is up-to-date. Usually the latest build is downloaded automatically. How can you verify the CPUSE agent build?

A. In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build
B. In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status version
C. In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build
D. In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer agent


Question # 4

After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

A. cvpnd_restart
B. cvpnd_restart
C. cvpnd restart
D. cvpnrestart


Question # 5

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events: 

A. Matching a log against each event definition
B. Create an event candidate
C. Matching a log against local exclusions
D. Matching a log against global exclusions


Question # 6

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

A. Upon creation of a certificate.
B. During the primary Security Management Server installation process.
C. When an administrator decides to create one.
D. When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.


Question # 7

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

A. logd
B. fwd
C. fwm
D. cpd


Question # 8

UserCheck objects in the Application Control and URL Filtering rules allow the gateway to communicate with the users. Which action is not supported in UserCheck objects?

A. Ask
B. Drop
C. Inform
D. Reject


Question # 9

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

A. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap
B. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap
C. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap
D. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap


Question # 10

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a __________ for user authentication.

A. Shared secret
B. Certificate
C. One-time password
D. Token


Question # 11

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A. Slow path
B. Firewall path
C. Medium path
D. Accelerated path


Question # 12

Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on Gaia from the command line?

A. ifconfig
B. dhcp_ofg
C. sysconfig
D. cpconfig


Question # 13

Joey want to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

A. https://<Device_IP_Adress>
B. http://<Device IP_Address>:443
C. https://<Device_IP_Address>:10000
D. https://<Device_IP_Address>:4434


Question # 14

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

A. clusterXL_admin down
B. cphaprob_admin down
C. clusterXL_admin down-p
D. set clusterXL down-p


Question # 15

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

A. Standard Policies
B. Shared Policies
C. Inspection Policies
D. Unified Policies


Question # 16

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

A. Any size
B. Less than 20GB
C. More than 10GB and less than 20GB
D. At least 20GB


Question # 17

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

A. This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.
B. This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.
C. This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).
D. Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.


Question # 18

Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Server showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?

A. $FWDIR/database/fwauthd.conf
B. $FWDIR/conf/fwauth.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
D. $FWDIR/state/fwauthd.conf


Question # 19

Fill in the blank: The R80 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

A. User data base corruption
B. LDAP conflicts
C. Traffic issues
D. Phase two key negotiations


Question # 20

Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

A. Support for IPv6
B. Granular access control
C. Strong user authentication
D. Secure connectivity


Question # 21

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit

A. Auditor
B. Read Only All
C. Super User
D. Full Access


Question # 22

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

A. Stateful Packets
B. No Match
C. All Packets
D. Stateless Packets


Question # 23

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

A. $FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server
B. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server
C. $FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway
D. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway


Question # 24

What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool? 

A. Run the command: fw monitor debug on
B. Clear the connections table
C. Disable CoreXL
D. Disable SecureXL


Question # 25

What command lists all interfaces using Multi-Queue?

A. cpmq get
B. show interface all
C. cpmq set
D. show multiqueue all


Question # 26

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links. Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

A. SandBlast Threat Emulation
B. SandBlast Agent
C. Check Point Protect
D. SandBlast Threat Extraction


Question # 27

To optimize Rule Base efficiency, the most hit rules should be where?

A. Removed from the Rule Base.
B. Towards the middle of the Rule Base.
C. Towards the top of the Rule Base.
D. Towards the bottom of the Rule Base.


Question # 28

What is the default shell for the command line interface? 

A. Expert
B. Clish
C. Admin
D. Normal


Question # 29

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic.The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated.What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

A. There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated.
B. The connection required a Security server.
C. Acceleration is not enabled.
D. The traffic is originating from the gateway itself.


Question # 30

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R80.10? 

A. Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled
B. Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled
C. fw ctl proxy should be configured
D. local.arp file must always be configured


Question # 31

Which component is NOT required to communicate with the Web Services API? 

A. API key
B. session ID token
C.content-type
D. Request payload


Question # 32

What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code? 

A. Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API
C. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API and Policy Editor API
D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API


Question # 33

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsive, which if these steps should NOT be performed:

A. Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.
B. Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
C. Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
D. Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.


Question # 34

How many interfaces can you configure to use the Multi-Queue feature? 

A. 10 interfaces
B. 3 interfaces
C. 4 interfaces
D. 5 interfaces


Question # 35

You have enabled “Full Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

A. Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security Management Server properties and install database.
B. Data Awareness is not enabled.
C. Identity Awareness is not enabled.
D. Logs are arriving from Pre-R80 gateways.


Question # 36

Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?

A. Takes less than a second to complete
B. Works on MS Office and PDF files only
C. Always delivers a file
D. Takes minutes to complete (less than 3 minutes)


Question # 37

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R80.x?

A. Identity Awareness Web Services
B. OPSEC SDK
C. Mobile Access
D. Management


Question # 38

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

A. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161
B. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116
C. Quicker than Full sync
D. Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members.


Question # 39

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

A. fwd via cpm
B. fwm via fwd
C. cpm via cpd
D. fwd via cpd


Question # 40

Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R80?

A. SmartConsole
B. SmartMonitor
C. SmartEndpoint
D. SmartDashboard


Question # 41

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation? 

A. Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware
B. Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers
C. Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.
D. Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.


Question # 42

Selecting an event displays its configurable properties in the Detail pane and a description of the event in the Description pane. Which is NOT an option to adjust or configure?

A. Severity
B. Automatic reactions
C. Policy
D. Threshold


Question # 43

What are the two high availability modes? 

A. Load Sharing and Legacy
B. Traditional and New
C. Active and Standby
D. Active and Standby


Question # 44

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R80 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

A. remove database lock
B. The database feature has one command lock database override.
C. override database lock
D. The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.


Question # 45

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default? 

A. Once a week
B. Once an hour
C. Twice per day
D. Once per day


Question # 46

R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed? 

A. Versions R77 and higher
B. Versions R76 and higher
C. Versions R75.20 and higher
D. Versions R75 and higher


Question # 47

You plan to automate creating new objects using new R80 Management API. You decide to use GAIA CLI for this task.What is the first step to run management API commands on GAIA’s shell?

A. mgmt_admin@teabag > id.txt
B. mgmt_login
C. login user admin password teabag
D. mgmt_cli login user “admin” password “teabag” > id.txt


Question # 48

When Configuring Endpoint Compliance Settings for Applications and Gateways within Mobile Access, which of the three approaches will allow you to contuju'1* individual policies for each application?

A. Basic Approach
B. Strong Approach
C. Very Advanced Approach
D. Medium Approach


Question # 49

What is the default size of NAT table fwx_alloc?

A. 20000
B. 35000
C. 25000
D. 10000


Question # 50

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

A. That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.
B. Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.
C. Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.
D. Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.


Question # 51

The log server sends what to the Correlation Unit? 

A. Authentication requests
B. CPMI dbsync
C. Logs
D. Event Policy


Question # 52

Matt wants to upgrade his old Security Management server to R80.x using the Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration. What is one of the requirements for a successful upgrade?

A. Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine
B. Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine
C. Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine
D. Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more


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